Multiple Choice Question and Answer for CTET Paper 1 (Hindi, English) Model Paper 2 (Marks : 150.00)

       

Section : Child Development and Pedagogy

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individual’s responsiveness to the environment is known as:
1. Canalization
2. Discontinuity
3. Differentiation
4. Range of reaction


Ques 2. All of the following advanced principles of child development that are closely allied to the stimulus response learning theory, except:
1. Pavilov
2. J.B.Waston
3. Hull
4. Gesell


Ques 3. A child cannot distinguish between 'saw' and 'was', nuclear' and 'unclear'. He/She is suffering from:
1. Dyslexia
2. word jumbling disorder
3. dyslexemia
4. dysmorphemia


Ques 4. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because:
1. it develops self-confidence in children
2. it makes learning easy
3. it is helpful in intellectual development
4. it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere


Ques 5. Single factor theory of intelligence was given by_____
1. Alfred Binet
2. Thorndike
3. Freeman
4. None of them


Ques 6. A new lesson being taught by you is not well-understood by the students. What will be your response?
1. Stop the lesson altogether
2. Tell the students to learn it any way
3. Change your method of teaching the lesson
4. Give some related home assignment, hoping that it will make the lesson clearer


Ques 7. Intelligence testing is useful for knowing_____
1. Individual difference
2. Mental retardation
3. Educational backwardness
4. All of these


Ques 8. A child from a disorganized home will experience the greatest difficulty with:
1. Well structured lessons
2. Independent study
3. Programmed instruction
4. Workbooks


Ques 9. Select the educable group of students from the following groups, indicating different I.Q. levels
1. 50 to 70
2. 30 to 50
3. 70 to 90
4. 40 to 80


Ques 10. All of the following advanced principles of child development that are closely allied to the stimulus response learning theory, except
1. Pavilov
2. J B Waston
3. Hull
4. Gesell


Ques 11. Frobel’s most important contribution to education was his development of the
1. Vocational School
2. Public high School
3. Kindergarten
4. Latin School


Ques 12. Teaching-Learning process fundamentally completed in
1. Class-room
2. School
3. Society
4. Home


Ques 13. Discipline means:
1. strict-behaviour
2. severe punishment
3. obedience
4. going by the rules


Ques 14. Sign of creative child is his/her
1. Intelligence
2. Good behavior
3. Creativity
4. Good memory


Ques 15. A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining
1. Environmental influences on development.
2. Biological influences on development.
3. Cognitive development.
4. Affective processes in development.


Ques 16. Which of the skills do you consider most essential for a teacher?
1. Oration skill
2. Listening skills
3. Managerial skills
4. Teaching skills


Ques 17. Who gives more stress to the philosophy of social constructivism?
1. Piaget
2. Kohlberg
3. Vygotsky
4. Dewey


Ques 18. Successful inclusion requires the following except
1. involvement of parents
2. capacity building
3. sensitization
4. segregation


Ques 19. A child has been admitted to your school who belongs to a back ward family/background from the cultural viewpoint. You will
1. Keep him in a class in which, there are many more students of backward
2. background from the cultural viewpoint
3. Send a teacher to know more about the backward cultural background of the child Keep him in a normal class but will make special arrangements for teaching him, keeping his special needs in view
4. Advise him to take up vocational education


Ques 20. Primary education helps_____.
1. Socialization of child
2. Democratization of child
3. In course understanding
4. All of the above


Ques 21. The differences among individuals that distinguish them from one another and make each one a unique individual are denoted by the term____.
1. Individual difference
2. Heredity
3. Environment
4. Personality


Ques 22. Child development is defined as a field of study that
1. Examines change in human abilities.
2. Seeks to explain behavior across the life span.
3. Compares children to adults to senior citizens.
4. Accounts for the gradual evolution of the child's cognitive, social, and other capacities


Ques 23. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because:
1. it develops self-confidence in children
2. it makes learning easy
3. it is helpful in intellectual development
4. it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere


Ques 24. What is the unit of Heredity?
1. Chromosome
2. Gene
3. fertilized cell
4. Zygote


Ques 25. Absenteeism can be tackled by :
1. teaching
2. punishing the students
3. giving the sweets
4. contacting the parents


Ques 26. Class-room discipline can be maintained effectively by a teacher
1. By wearing fancy and expensive clothes by teacher
2. By providing a programme which is according to the need and interest of the pupil
3. If indiscipline take place, handle it with astern attitude
4. None of the above


Ques 27. All of the following advanced principles of child development that are closely allied to the stimulus response learning theory, except
1. Pavilov
2. J B Waston
3. Hull
4. Gesell


Ques 28. The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individual’s responsiveness to the environment is known as:
1. Canalization
2. Discontinuity
3. Differentiation
4. Range of reaction


Ques 29. Assessment for learning takes into account the following except
1. mistake of students
2. learning styles of students
3. strengths of students
4. needs of students


Ques 30. _____ is the capacity to acquire and apply knowledge.
1. Personality
2. Intelligence
3. Aptitude
4. Attitude


Answers are:
Ques 1: 4
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 2
Ques 4: 1
Ques 5: 1
Ques 6: 3
Ques 7: 4
Ques 8: 2
Ques 9: 1
Ques 10: 2
Ques 11: 4
Ques 12: 1
Ques 13: 4
Ques 14: 3
Ques 15: 2
Ques 16: 4
Ques 17: 3
Ques 18: 4
Ques 19: 4
Ques 20: 4
Ques 21: 1
Ques 22: 4
Ques 23: 1
Ques 24: 2
Ques 25: 4
Ques 26: 2
Ques 27: 4
Ques 28: 3
Ques 29: 1
Ques 30: 2


Section : Language I (Hindi)

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. गगन-चुम्बी
1. कर्मधारय
2. अव्ययीभाव
3. द्वन्द्व
4. तत्पुरूष


Ques 2. दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही/शुद्ध वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चुनाव कीजिए।
1. अंर्तगत
2. अतिआवष्यक
3. क्रियान्वायन
4. अतिरंजित


Ques 3. "ग्रह" शब्द में कौनसा उपसर्ग जोडें कि अर्थ "संग्रह" हो जाए ?
1. परि
2. वि
3. आ
4. नि


Ques 4. निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए
1.  बडे दुःख की बात है कि
2. डाक्टर के आने से पहले ही
3. उसके प्राण।पखेरू उड गए
4.  कोई त्रुटि नही।


Ques 5. उद्धत
1. सौम्य
2. विनीत
3. विनयषील
4. विनम्र


Ques 6. सकाम
1. कुकर्म
2. अकाम
3. निष्काम
4. निष्फल


Ques 7. निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए
1. महात्माओं का
2. वैराग भी समय
3. के परिवर्तन की अपेक्षा
4. नही रखता


Ques 8. किस शब्द में "सु" उपसर्ग का प्रयोग नहीं हुआ है ?
1. सुहास
2. सुयोग्य
3. सुफल
4. सुरेन्द्र


Ques 9. "खुशबू" में कौनसा उपसर्ग है?
1. खुश
2. बू
3. शबू
4. खु


Ques 10. निशाचर
1. कर्मधारय
2. द्विगु
3. द्वन्द्व
4. तत्पुरूष


Ques 11. ऋत
1. अनृत
2. ऋण
3. एक
4. उष्ण


Ques 12. निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1. दुअन्द
2. द्वन्द्ध
3. द्वन्द्व
4. द्वंद


Ques 13. "पराधीन" एवं "परोक्ष" शब्दों में उपसर्ग होंगे ?
1. परा पर
2. परा परः
3. पर परः
4. परा परि


Ques 14. अनायास
1. तत्पुरूष
2. द्वन्द्व
3. द्विगु
4. अव्यवी भाव


Ques 15. जानने की इच्छा रखने वाला ।
1. विज्ञ
2. जिज्ञासु
3. ज्ञानी
4. ऋषि


Ques 16. "स्वाधीन" में उपसर्ग है ?
1. स्व
2. सु
3. सम्
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं


Ques 17. तोय
1. वाणी
2. वायु
3. अग्नि
4. जल


Ques 18. "अंतर्द्वद्व" में किस उपसर्ग का प्रयोग हुआ है
1. अंत
2. आ
3. अंतर्
4. अन्तर


Ques 19. अर्पण
1. लेना
2. स्वीकार करना
3. पाना
4. ग्रहण


Ques 20. "प्रतिकूल" व "प्रहलाद" शब्दों में उपसर्ग होंगे ?
1. प्र प्र
2. प्रत् प्रह्
3. प्रति प्र
4. प्रती प्र


Ques 21. अक्ल मारी जाना
1. बुद्धि भ्रष्ट होना
2. दुविधा में पडना
3. घमण्ड होना
4. बुद्धिमान होना


Ques 22. किस शब्द में उपसर्ग का उपयोग किया गया है ?
1. अर्जुन
2. तर्जनी
3. गर्जन
4.


Ques 23. "वह खाना खाकर सो गया" इस वाक्य में कौन-सी क्रिया है?
1. सहायक
2. पूर्वकालिक
3. नामबोधक
4. कोई नहीं


Ques 24. जो मार्ग में चलने वाला हो।
1. बटोही
2. अवरोही
3. हितैषी
4. आरोही


Ques 25. तीक्ष्ण
1. तीव्र
2. तृष्णा
3. त्यागी
4. कुंठित


Instruction : यह कहना कितना सत्य है कि जैसे सोने का प्रत्येक धागा मूल्यवान होता है, उसी तरह समय का प्रत्येक क्षण भी मूल्यवान होता है ? समय निरंतर गतिमान है | न तो वह भी रुकता है और न ही कभी लौटकर वापस आता है | मिनट, घंटे, सप्ताह, महीने और वर्ष बीत जाते है | इतना समय व्यर्थ जाने के बाद हमें यह समझ में आता है कि हमने केवल अपना कीमती समय ही बर्बाद किया है | एक प्रसिद्ध विचारक ने कहा है – ‘सोने से पहले अपने सारे क्रियाकलापों को एक डायरी में लिखो | सुबह उठकर उसे पढो और मनन करो कि बीते कल का तुमने कितना सदुपयोग किया ? कल तुमने क्या खोया, क्या पाया ? तुम्हारे कल के कर्म भावी जीवन पर क्या प्रभाव डाल सकते हैं ? तब तुम्हें अपने वर्तमान और भविष्य की सच्ची तस्वीर दिखाई देगी | तुमको पता चल पाएगा कि तुम अपना कितना समय अकारण गँवा रहे हो ? यह भी जान पाओगे कि क्यों तुम्हारे सपने पुरे नहीं हो रहे ?’ पिछले समय का लेखा-जोखा करके हम अपने जीवन से बहुत कुछ सिख सकते हैं | किस काम को करने से हमें कितनी हानि हुई और किस काम को करने से कितना लाभ हुआ – यह हमें सबसे पहले देखना चाहिए | किसी उधोगपति को एक सौदा तय करने के लिए सुबह दस बजे जाना था, मगर आलस्य के कारण वह साढ़े दस बजे पहुँचा | दूसरा व्यापारी जा चुका था | वह उसके नाम एक पुरजा छोड़ गया था, जिस पर लिखा था, ‘जो व्यक्ति समय का पाबंद नहीं, उससे क्या सौदा किया जाए ? वह वादे के अनुसार समय पर कभी माल नहीं भेज सकता |’ पर्ची पढ़ते ही उस उधोगपति की हवाइयां उड़ गई | लाखों के नुकसान से उसने एक सबक सिखा – समय की पाबंदी | हम लापरवाही में दूसरों के समय की कीमत नहीं समझते, तो उनके द्वारा हम ठुकरा दिए जाते हैं | इसलिए पछताने से अच्छा है कि समय का सदुपयोग करके अपने जीवन का उद्देश्य प्राप्त करें |(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)
Ques 26. ‘निरंतर गतिमान’ उसे कहेंगे जो:
1. कभी नहीं रुकता
2. कभी एक-सा नहीं रहता
3. सदा निरंतर रहता है |
4. कभी नहीं चलता


Ques 27. ‘हवाइयां उड़ना’ मुहावरे का सही प्रयोग है:
1. दीवाली में शाम होते ही हवाइयाँ उड़ने लगीं
2. पुलिस को सामने देखकर चोर के चेहरे पर हवाइयाँ उड़ने लगीं |
3. वायुयान से यात्रा करने में चारों ओर हवाइयाँ उड़ती हैं |
4. बेटे को पाकर माँ के चेहरे पर हवाइयां उड़ने लगीं |


Ques 28. सोने का उदाहरण यह बताने के लिए दिया गया है कि:
1. समय मूल्यवान होता है |
2. समय गतिमान होता है |
3. सोना समय पर खरीदा जाता है |
4. सोना कीमती होता है |


Ques 29. ‘भविष्य’ की सही वर्तनी है:
1. भ् + अ + व् + इ + ष् + अ + य
2. भ् + अ + व् + इ + ष् + य् + अ
3. भ् + व् + इ + ष् + य् + अ
4. भ् + अ + व् + इ + ष् + य


Ques 30. नीचे लिखे शब्दों में से उसे छाँटिए जो शेष से भिन्न हो:
1. प्राचीन
2. भूत
3. भविष्य
4. पूरातन


Answers are:
Ques 1: 2
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 1
Ques 4: 3
Ques 5: 2
Ques 6: 3
Ques 7: 2
Ques 8: 4
Ques 9: 1
Ques 10: 4
Ques 11: 1
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 3
Ques 14: 4
Ques 15: 2
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 4
Ques 18: 3
Ques 19: 4
Ques 20: 3
Ques 21: 1
Ques 22: 4
Ques 23: 2
Ques 24: 1
Ques 25: 4
Ques 26: 1
Ques 27: 2
Ques 28: 1
Ques 29: 1
Ques 30: 3


Section : Language II (English)

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Roshni was found (A) / of pets and she was a proud (B) / owner of many unique (C) / animals. (D) / All correct (E)
1. found
2. proud
3. unique
4. animals


Ques 2. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Admision
2. Admmission
3. Addmission
4. Admission


Ques 3. Impromptu
1. Important
2. Impressive
3. Inspiring
4. Offhand


Ques 4. Philanderer
1. Time waster
2. Spendthrift
3. Make flirt
4. Wanderer


Ques 5. Undergraduate degrees in public health should be (A)/ meet the health challenges posed by rapid economic development (B)/ promoted in order to have an optimum number of (C)/ public health professionals who can successfully (D)/
1. CBDA
2. ACDB
3. ADBC
4. CABD


Ques 6. If we don't offer a good price for the house now, we'll probably miss the boat.
1. Acted quickly
2. Acted late
3. Unpleasant situation
4. Historical theme


Ques 7. TACTFUL
1. diplomatic
2. indifferent
3. intelligent
4. deceitful


Ques 8. To feel blue
1. To work hard and stay up very late night
2. To feel very sad
3. To have faith in god
4. To commit a blunder


Ques 9. Opening up the Capital Account too will __________ some of the pressure on the RBI . Exchange controls were introduced as a temporary war time __________ in 1939, but were abolished by the UK in 1979 and by Australia in 198
3. Even smaller countries like Israel have abolished exchange control. India continues to hold onto measures taken __________ its colonial past.
1. relieve measure during
2. ease, step, for
3. alleviate, appraise, within
4. build, procedure, throughout


Ques 10. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Grammor
2. Grammer
3. Grammar
4. Grammur


Ques 11. desire to fight corruption and (A)/ a government that is sincere in its (B)/ injustice must protect whistleblowers (C)/ rather than prosecute them (D)
1. BACD
2. BDCA
3. DCAB
4. CABD


Ques 12. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Asimillation
2. Assimillation
3. Assimilation
4. Asimilation


Ques 13. Countervailing
1. Argumentative
2. Compensating
3. Crying
4. Complaining


Ques 14. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Peraffin
2. Pareffin
3. Paraffin
4. Parafin


Ques 15. with a group of top executives of the US aluminium (A)/ and steel industries, suggesting that domestic steel (B)/ and aluminium prices and profits were the prime considerations in arriving at the ­decision (C)/ The announcement of the import tariffs came at a meeting (D)/
1. DBAC
2. DCBA
3. DABC
4. BCAD


Ques 16. Bangladesh delayed the start of the planned repatriation of Rohingya refugees to Myanmar, _______ that it had not compiled a list of those ready to return.
I. On thin ice
II. On the grounds
III. For the reason
1. Only II
2. Only I and II
3. Only I and III
4. Only II and III


Ques 17. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Warrior
2. Warior
3. Wariour
4. Worriur


Ques 18. A. That is what health is all about — not illness and hospitals.
B. On the contrary#@# it is concerned with the well-being and ability to perform tasks in a vibrant society.
C. The word 'health' is often misunderstood and linked with hospitals and treatment by medical doctors.
D. After all#@# staying healthy is the most important thing.
1. BACD
2. ACDB
3. DBAC
4. CBDA


Ques 19. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Deterriorate
2. Detiriorate
3. Detereorate
4. Deteriorate


Ques 20. Roshni wanted (A) / to play (B) / with her pet dog and so she started (C) / throwing tantrums. (D) / All correct (E)
1. wanted
2. play
3. started
4. tantrums


Ques 21. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Eccumenikal
2. Ecumenical
3. Ecuemenicel
4. Ekumanical


Ques 22. Copeing (A) / with her mother’s long illness (B) / was a heavy load (C) / to bear. (D) / All correct (E)
1. Copeing
2. illness
3. load
4. bear


Ques 23. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Jeopardese
2. Jeoperdize
3. Jeopardize
4. Jeoperdise


Ques 24. Let's put our heads together and come up with a solution to this problem.
1. Confer
2. Debate
3. Argue
4. Both A and C


Ques 25. Fury
1. Shout
2. Scold
3. Frown
4. Anger


Instruction : "Ever since the morning after 26/11, India’s strategic community has discussed what the country ought to do when the next 26/11 happens. Prime Minister Narendra Modi may have to answer that question sooner than most people expect. The Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) staged its first operation against an Indian target since 26/11 just hours before Mr. Modi took office, attacking India’s mission in Herat. Lashkar chief Hafiz Muhammad Saeed blamed Mr. Modi for this week’s attacks on Karachi — and demanded vengeance.

From past evidence, we know these threats aren’t idle. “The only language India understands is that of force,” a press release issued by the Lashkar’s parent organisation, Jamaat-ud-Dawa recorded Mr. Saeed as saying before 26/11, “and that is the language it must be talked to in.”

From files he will have read since taking office, Mr. Modi will have learned why Dr. Singh did nothing. Indian combat jets could hit training camps across the Line of Control (LoC), Air Chief Marshal Fali Major said at a November 29 meeting called for by the Prime Minister, but precise coordinates and adequate imaging weren’t available. Later, General Deepak Kapoor, the chief of Army staff, told Dr. Singh he couldn’t promise special forces’ strikes would be successful either.

No one could guarantee missile strikes wouldn’t escalate into war, or even a nuclear exchange — and no one could guarantee war would compel Pakistan’s military to change course.

Mr. Modi’s advisers know five responses are on the table — but all of them involve great risks. The first is to keep doing nothing. The threat of a major India-Pakistan crisis after 26/11 led the United States to mount intense pressure on Pakistan. In the years since, the LeT hasn’t mounted a single major operation on Indian soil. Its affiliate, the Indian Mujahideen, has had restraint thrust upon it by Pakistan’s Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI) Directorate.

Inaction, though, only succeeds if someone else does the hard work. In 2008, fearing its own war in Afghanistan would be undermined by an India-Pakistan war, the U.S. stepped in. Now, as it prepares to withdraw from Afghanistan, the country’s appetite for playing global policeman is diminishing. Doing nothing could thus invite even more punishment.

Like Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Mr. Modi’s second choice might be coercion. In 2001, after terrorists attacked Parliament, India mobilised troops. Pakistan was forced to respond — but its smaller economy suffered disproportionately. The stratagem is time-tested. In 1953, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru mobilised troops in Punjab to deter a Pakistani attack into Kashmir.

Mr. Vajpayee’s strategy worked, forcing Pakistan to dramatically scale down the jihad in Jammu and Kashmir. It only worked, though, because the U.S. played mediator — much like after 26/11 — and it was hideously expensive, in money and lives.

The third choice is to do what Dr. Singh couldn’t: limited strikes on jihadist training camps across the LoC, using air power or missiles. In the five years since 26/11, India’s ability to conduct such strikes has been significantly enhanced. However, the tactic hasn’t had great success. In August 1998, the United States fired missiles into Afghanistan, seeking to avenge bombings which killed 224 people. In all, 75 missiles, each priced at $1.5 million, killed six minor jihadists. Moreover, Pakistan could hit back, targeting Indian industrial infrastructure, which is much more expensive than tent-and-donkey cart training camps.

Fourth, the Prime Minister could tell Indian troops to target the Pakistan Army along the LoC, using artillery and infantry — a task aided by the fact that its defences along stretches of the Neelam valley have been degraded by troops having to be moved to fight the Tehreek-e-Taliban elsewhere. The fighting that will follow though will make it more difficult to secure the LoC against jihadist infiltration — leading to heightened violence in Kashmir.

Mr. Modi could, finally, authorise the use of covert means, like bomb-for-bomb strikes or targeted assassination of jihadist leaders. Mr. Modi’s intelligence services, though, don’t have this arrow in their quiver — and it will be a while, most experts say, before they can acquire it.

Every sane person should hope Mr. Modi will never be required to exercise any of his military options — but thinking through war is just as important as talking peace."(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)

Ques 26. What could be an appropriate title of the passage?
1. India and Pakistan : An endless saga of hatred
2. India’s future response to Pak’s attack and its pros and cons
3. India[comma] Pakistan and the USA : A way ahead to settle disputes
4. Ways to stop cross border terrorism and restore peace


Ques 27. Which of the following statements according to the passage is true?
1. America has never been supportive to India against Pakistan.
2. The writer talks about pros and cons of responding to Pakistan if it attacks India in future.
3. Hafiz Muhammad Saeed never blamed Mr. Modi for recent attacks on Karachi.
4. All are true


Ques 28. What according to the passage could be a way to respond to Pakistan after 26/11 attacks?
1. To persuade Pakistan forcefully to stop the terror acts on India.
2. To launch limited strikes on jihadist training camps across the border.
3. To target assassination of jihadist leaders.
1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Only 1 & 2
4. Only 2 & 3


Ques 29. Which of the following statements according to the passage is not true?
1. Coercion tactics to combat Pakistan's cloven hoof have never been successful in the past.
2. Dr M. M. Singh did almost nothing in response to 26/11 attacks.
3. Fighting the Pakistan Army along the LoC head-on may make it more difficult to secure the LoC against jihadist infiltration.
4. A war with Pakistan could not guarantee peace after 26/11.


Ques 30. What is the major reason according to the passage is for the Lashkar-e-Taiba not mounting a major operation on Indian soil after 26/11?
1. Due to India's enhanced security after 26/11
2. Due to India's serious dialogue with Pakistan
3. Due to the pressure Pakistan got from the United States of America
4. Because the outfit lost its Chief in an accident


Answers are:
Ques 1: 1
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 4
Ques 4: 3
Ques 5: 2
Ques 6: 2
Ques 7: 1
Ques 8: 2
Ques 9: 1
Ques 10: 3
Ques 11: 1
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 2
Ques 14: 3
Ques 15: 3
Ques 16: 4
Ques 17: 1
Ques 18: 4
Ques 19: 4
Ques 20: 5
Ques 21: 2
Ques 22: 1
Ques 23: 3
Ques 24: 1
Ques 25: 4
Ques 26: 2
Ques 27: 2
Ques 28: 5
Ques 29: 1
Ques 30: 3


Section : Mathematics

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days, while B and C can do the same work in 24 days and C and A in 20 day. They all work together for 10 days, after which B and C leave. How many days more will A take to finish the work?
1. 20 days
2. 19 days
3. 18 days
4. 22 days


Ques 2.

There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent from A to B, then the number of students in each room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent from B to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. The number of students in room A is:

1. 20
2. 80
3. 100
4. 200


Ques 3. It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes more, if 200 km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the cars is:
1. 2:03
2. 3:02
3. 3:04
4. 4:03


Ques 4. Each side of a rectangular field diminished by 40%. By how much per cent is the area of the field diminished?
1. 32
2. 64
3. 25
4. 16


Ques 5.

Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The capacity of the tank is:

1. 60 gallons
2. 100 gallons
3. 120 gallons
4. 140 gallons


Ques 6. A train 270 m long is moving at a speed of 24 kmph. It will cross a man coming from the opposite direction at a speed of 3 kmph, in
1. 30 s
2. 32 s
3. 34 s
4. 36 s


Ques 7. Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and woman?
1. 3:02
2. 4:03
3. 5:03
4. 3:04


Ques 8. A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5 km/hr. The man's speed against the current is:
1. 8.5 km/hr
2. 9 km/hr
3. 10 km/hr
4. 12.5 km/hr


Ques 9. A train covers a distance in 50 min, if it runs at a speed of 48kmph on an average. The speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to 40min will be.
1. 60 km/h
2. 55 km/h
3. 40 km/h
4. 70 km/h


Ques 10.

To fill a tank, 25 buckets of water is required. How many buckets of water will be required to fill the same tank if the capacity of the bucket is reduced to two-fifth of its present ?

1. 10
2. 35
3. 62.5
4. Cannot be determined


Ques 11. A lump of two metals weighing 18 g is worth Rs. 87 but if their weight be interchanged, it would be worth Rs. 78.60. If the price of one metal be Rs. 6.70 per gram, find the weight of the other metal in the mixture.
1. 8g
2. 12g
3. 15g
4. 18g


Ques 12. What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 30 ?
1. 196
2. 630
3. 1260
4. 2520


Ques 13. A train covers a distance in 50 min, if it runs at a speed of 48kmph on an average. The speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to 40min will be
1. 45 min
2. 60 min
3. 55 min
4. 70 min


Ques 14.

A sum of Rs. 725 is lent in the beginning of a year at a certain rate of interest. After 8 months, a sum of Rs. 362.50 more is lent but at the rate twice the former. At the end of the year, Rs. 33.50 is earned as interest from both the loans. What was the original rate of interest?

1. 3.6%
2. 4.5%
3. 5%
4. None of these


Ques 15. A man can cover a distance in 1hr 24min by covering 2/3 of the distance at 4 km/h and the rest at 5km/h. The total distance is
1. 5km
2. 6km
3. 7km
4. 8km


Ques 16. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?
1. 52
2. 65
3. 67
4. 72


Ques 17. 80% of a smaller number is 4 less than 40% of a larger number. The larger number is 85 greater than the smaller one. The sum of these two number is
1. 325
2. 425
3. 235
4. 500


Ques 18.

The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a man cycling along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area of the park (in sq. m) is:

1. 15360
2. 153600
3. 30720
4. 307200


Ques 19. A man takes twice as long to row a distance against the stream as to row the same distance in favour of the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat (in still water) and the stream is:
1. 2:01
2. 3:01
3. 3:01
4. 4:03


Ques 20.

The value of log2 16 is:

1. (1/8)
2. 4
3. 8
4. 16


Ques 21. A father is 30 years older than his son. He will be three times as old as his son after 5 years. What is the father's present age?
1. 35
2. 45
3. 40
4. 30


Ques 22. The banker's gain on a sum due 3 years hence at 12% per annum is Rs. 270. The banker's discount is:
1. Rs. 960
2. Rs. 840
3. Rs. 1020
4. Rs. 760


Ques 23. When you reverse the digits of age of father, you will get the age of son. one year ago the age of father was twice that of son's age. what are the current ages of father and son?
1. 73 and 37
2. 45 and 54
3. 31 and 13
4. 24 and 42


Ques 24.

A man invested Rs. 4455 in Rs. 10 shares quoted at Rs. 8.25. If the rate of dividend be 12%, his annual income is:

1. Rs. 207.40
2. Rs. 534.60
3. Rs. 648
4. Rs. 655.60


Ques 25. The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by 20% is:
1. 40%
2. 42%
3. 44%
4. 46%


Ques 26. Two trains are running in opposite directions towards each other with speeds of 54 kmph and 48 kmph respectively. If the length of one train is 250 m and they cross each other in 18 seconds, the length of the other train is
1. 250 m
2. 270 m
3. 260 m
4. 280 m


Ques 27. A dealer offers a cash discount of 20% and still makes a profit of 20%, when he further allows 16 articles to a dozen to a particularly sticky bargainer. How much percent above the cost price were his wares listed?
1. 100%
2. 80%
3. 75%
4. 66(2/3)%


Ques 28.

A bookseller procures 40 books for Rs. 3200 and sells them at a profit equal to the selling price of 8 books. What is the selling price of one dozen books, if the price of each book is same?

1. Rs. 720
2. Rs. 960
3. Rs. 1200
4. Rs. 1440


Ques 29. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
1. 9000
2. 9400
3. 9600
4. 9800


Ques 30. A shopkeeper wishes to give 5% commission on the marked price of an article but also wants to earn a profit of 10%. If his cost price is ₹ 95, then marked price is:
1. ₹ 100
2. ₹110
3. ₹ 120
4. ₹ 130


Answers are:
Ques 1: 3
Ques 2: 3
Ques 3: 3
Ques 4: 2
Ques 5: 3
Ques 6: 4
Ques 7: 2
Ques 8: 3
Ques 9: 1
Ques 10: 3
Ques 11: 1
Ques 12: 2
Ques 13: 2
Ques 14: 4
Ques 15: 2
Ques 16: 2
Ques 17: 3
Ques 18: 2
Ques 19: 2
Ques 20: 2
Ques 21: 3
Ques 22: 3
Ques 23: 1
Ques 24: 3
Ques 25: 3
Ques 26: 3
Ques 27: 1
Ques 28: 3
Ques 29: 3
Ques 30: 2


Section : Environmental Studies

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Organic farming is
1. enhancing biodiversity
2. promoting soil biological activity
3. farming without using pesticides and chemical fertilizers
4. all the above


Ques 2. The important gaseous pollutants contributing to acid rain are
1. Oxygen and Nitrogen
2. Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen (NOx)


Ques 3. The ideal of sustainable development was defined for the first time by the world commission on environment and development in the year
1. 1985
2. 1986
3. 1987
4. 1988


Ques 4. Which of the following is not a Green House Gas?
1. Ozone
2. Water vapour
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Sulpher dioxide


Ques 5. Use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) came into effect from
1. Dec 2000
2. 1-Dec
3. 2-Dec
4. 3-Dec


Ques 6. Global warming means :
1. Increase in Earth's Body Temperature
2. Increase in solar radiation
3. Acid Rain
4. All the above


Ques 7. Green house effect causes
1. Increase in rainfall
2. Lowering of acid rain
3. Rise in temperature of earth
4. Lowering in temperature of earth


Ques 8. Non-point source of water pollution is caused by
1. Pipes
2. Ditches
3. Sewers
4. Mining wastes


Ques 9. Hydrogen is found on earth in combination with
1. Copper
2. Oxygen
3. Helium
4. Sulphur


Ques 10. In which year the Hon'ble supreme court ofIndia made environmental education compulsory subject at all the levels of education
1. 2000
2. 2001
3. 2002
4. 2003


Ques 11. The perfect equilibrium existing in the biosphere between the various organisms is known as
1. Ecological cycle
2. Ecological balance
3. Environmental balance
4. None of these


Ques 12. Trickle irrigation reduces
1. Percolation
2. Salinization
3. Water evaporation
4. All of these


Ques 13. Each chlorine free radical can destroy the number of ozone molecules
1. 100 ozone molecules
2. 1000 ozone molecules
3. 10[comma]000 ozone molecules
4. 100[comma]000 ozone molecules


Ques 14. The type of mass movement characterized by a slow and gradual down slope movement is known as
1. Creep
2. Rockfill
3. Landslide
4. Mud flow


Ques 15. An ecosystem consists of
1. Population
2. A biotic community
3. A population and its non-living elements
4. A biotic ecommunity and its non-living elements


Ques 16. Ozone is present in which layers of the atmosphere?
1. Stratosphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Troposphere
4. Thermosphere


Ques 17. Major source of Fluoride available in :
1. River water
2. Food products
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. Ground water


Ques 18. The first major environmental protection law promulgated in India was
1. Air Act
2. Water Act
3. Environmental Act
4. None of these


Ques 19. Largest reservoir of Nitrogen is exists in :
1. Atmosphere
2. Stratosphere.
3. Hydrosphere
4. Lithosphere


Ques 20. Sustainable development
1. Encourages environmentally economic growth
2. Discourages environmentally economic growth
3. Encourages environmentally harmful and unsustainable forms of economic growth
4. All the above


Ques 21. First International Earth summit was held at
1. Germany
2. Stockholm
3. Johannesburg
4. Riode Janeiro


Ques 22. Which of the following is a natural source of environmental pollution?
1. Earthquake
2. Automobiles
3. Industries
4. Sewage


Ques 23. Water Pollution, 'Prevention and Control Act' was enacted in the year
1. 1954
2. 1964
3. 1974
4. 1984


Ques 24. Amount of Carbon Dioxide(CO2) content in atmospheric Air is normally
1. 0.21%
2. 0.32%
3. 0.42%
4. 0.43%


Ques 25. Animal husbandry may result in
1. Genetic Damage
2. Ozone depletion
3. Global warming
4. None of the above


Ques 26. Which of the following is a natural source of Air pollution?
1. Storms
2. Acid rain
3. Precipitation
4. Volcanic eruptions


Ques 27. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?
1. Fungi
2. Wind
3. Sunlight
4. Temperature & Water


Ques 28. Objective of environmental studies is to
1. Create environmental ethics that foster awareness about the ecological inter -dependence of economic[comma] social and political factors in a human community and theenvironment
2. Acquiring skills to help the concerned individuals in identifying and solving environmental problems
3. Raise consciousness about environmental conditions
4. All of the above


Ques 29. Acid rains are more prominent in
1. Arid regions
2. Tropical regions
3. Temperate regions
4. Equally prominent in all


Ques 30. Noise pollution limit in industrial area is
1. 65 dB
2. 80 dB
3. 95 dB
4. 100 dB


Answers are:
Ques 1: 4
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 3
Ques 4: 4
Ques 5: 3
Ques 6: 1
Ques 7: 3
Ques 8: 4
Ques 9: 2
Ques 10: 4
Ques 11: 2
Ques 12: 4
Ques 13: 4
Ques 14: 4
Ques 15: 4
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 3
Ques 18: 2
Ques 19: 1
Ques 20: 4
Ques 21: 2
Ques 22: 1
Ques 23: 3
Ques 24: 2
Ques 25: 3
Ques 26: 4
Ques 27: 1
Ques 28: 4
Ques 29: 1
Ques 30: 2



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