Multiple Choice Question and Answer for UPTET Paper 1 (Hindi, English) Model Paper 9 (Marks : 150.00)

       

Section : Child Development and Methodology and Pedagogy

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Robert Sternberg, a famous psychologist, argued that creativity requires __________ different types of intelligence.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4


Ques 2. A new lesson being taught by you is not well-understood by the students. What will be your response?
1. Stop the lesson altogether
2. Tell the students to learn it any way
3. Change your method of teaching the lesson
4. Give some related home assignment, hoping that it will make the lesson clearer


Ques 3. Of the following, the most promising step for a teacher to take in order to improve class discipline is to
1. Note specific infractions of class rules in the marking book
2. Evaluate his/her materials, methods and approaches to children
3. Consult the class and agree upon a graduated series of punishments
4. Call a parent-teacher meeting to discuss the situation


Ques 4. An assessment that is generally carried out at the end of a course to assign students a course grade is called
1. Formative assessment
2. Summative assessment
3. Diagnostic assessment
4. Contemporary assessment


Ques 5. The three laws of connectionism are the laws of
1. effect[comma] stimulus and response
2. effect[comma] exercise and readiness
3. stimulus[comma] response and exercise
4. exercise[comma] readiness and response


Ques 6. The philosopher who is called the father of Idealism is
1. Plato
2. Socrates
3. Aristotle
4. Edward Thorndike


Ques 7. Questioning in the class-room
1. Clarifies the subject-matter
2. Develops inactivity
3. Is a wastage of time
4. Creates indiscipline


Ques 8. To break information into parts and to examine the information is called
1. analyzing
2. evaluating
3. originating
4. synthesizing


Ques 9. In co-education you won’t
1. make separate rows of boys and girls
2. you give preference to boys over girls
3. you give preference to none
4. you deal according toned


Ques 10. The concept of perennialism in education means school curricula should focus on what is
1. in need
2. in demand
3. important
4. everlasting


Ques 11. Successful inclusion requires the following except
1. involvement of parents
2. capacity building
3. sensitization
4. segregation


Ques 12. A common technique to help people begin the creative process is
1. calculations
2. thoroughness
3. brain storming
4. mental shortcuts


Ques 13. Progressivism believes that education comes from the experience of the
1. child
2. teacher
3. society
4. principal


Ques 14. If some students are not in a mood to study in the class, you will
1. Force them to study
2. Tell those students to leave the class and enjoy
3. Warn them that they must study else you will report the matter to the Principal
4. Tell them some interesting things related to their interests or your own subject


Ques 15. According to Edward Thorndike, learning is about responding to
1. change
2. stimuli
3. analysis
4. experiment


Ques 16. The development that proceeds in the direction of the longitudinal axis i.e., head to foot is termed as_____
1. Cephalo-caudal development
2. Proximo distal
3. Interrelation
4. Intergration


Ques 17. A child cannot distinguish between 'saw' and 'was', nuclear' and 'unclear'. He/She is suffering from:
1. Dyslexia
2. word jumbling disorder
3. dyslexemia
4. dysmorphemia


Ques 18. If you find a student wearing some odd dress in your class, you will
1. Ask the student not to attend the class
2. Make a joke on him
3. Counsel him not to wear such clothes in a class
4. Not give any attention


Ques 19. According to Rousseau, at what age a person ready to have a companion of the opposite sex?
1. 15
2. 16
3. 17
4. 18


Ques 20. A child has been admitted to your school who belongs to a back ward family/background from the cultural viewpoint. You will
1. Keep him in a class in which, there are many more students of backward
2. background from the cultural viewpoint
3. Send a teacher to know more about the backward cultural background of the child Keep him in a normal class but will make special arrangements for teaching him, keeping his special needs in view
4. Advise him to take up vocational education


Ques 21. NavodayaSchools have been established to:
1. increase number of school in rural areas
2. provide good education in rural areas
3. complete‘SarvaShikshaAbhiyan’
4. check wastage of education in rural areas


Ques 22. Which would be the best theme to start with in a nursery class?
1. My best friend
2. My neighbourhood
3. My school
4. My family


Ques 23. The curriculum of educational institutes should be based on
1. theory
2. practice
3. theory and practice
4. theory[comma] practice and research


Ques 24. Progressivism believes that children learn in a/an
1. isolation
2. community
3. competition
4. closed environment


Ques 25. A posteriori knowledge is knowledge that is known by
1. analysis
2. evidence
3. experience
4. information


Ques 26. Which one of the following is an example of a fine motor skill?
1. Climbing
2. Hopping
3. Running
4. Writing


Ques 27. The reason why students run from school is
1. Lack of interesting class teaching work
2. Lack of interest in studies on the part of students
3. Not giving punishment to students
4. Callous attitude of teachers towards the problem


Ques 28. The key difference between evolutionary and cultural change is that evolutionary change alters__________ whereas cultural change alters____________.
1. Reproduction; environment
2. Heredity; environment
3. Environment; behavior
4. Development; learning


Ques 29. RTE stands for
1. Right to education
2. Right True education
3. Right time education
4. Rarely true education


Ques 30. According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the Formal operational stage starts at age
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8


Answers are:
Ques 1: 3
Ques 2: 3
Ques 3: 2
Ques 4: 2
Ques 5: 2
Ques 6: 1
Ques 7: 1
Ques 8: 1
Ques 9: 4
Ques 10: 4
Ques 11: 4
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 1
Ques 14: 4
Ques 15: 2
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 3
Ques 19: 2
Ques 20: 4
Ques 21: 2
Ques 22: 4
Ques 23: 3
Ques 24: 2
Ques 25: 3
Ques 26: 4
Ques 27: 4
Ques 28: 2
Ques 29: 1
Ques 30: 3


Section : Language I (Hindi)

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1. अधोपतन
2. अधिःपतन
3. अधःपतन
4. आधःपतन


Ques 2. काम का नाम बताने वाले शब्द को क्या कहते हे ?
1. संज्ञा
2. सर्वनाम
3. क्रिया
4. क्रिया-विषेषण


Ques 3. महोदय
1. महो + दय
2. महा + ओदय
3. महान + उदय
4. महा + उदय


Ques 4. किस शब्द में उपसर्ग का उपयोग किया गया है ?
1. अर्जुन
2. तर्जनी
3. गर्जन
4.


Ques 5. अंडे का शहजादा
1. कमजोर व्यक्ति
2. चालाक व्यक्ति
3. अनुभवी व्यक्ति
4. अनुभवहीन व्यक्त


Ques 6. "वह खाना खाकर सो गया" इस वाक्य में कौन-सी क्रिया है?
1. सहायक
2. पूर्वकालिक
3. नामबोधक
4. कोई नहीं


Ques 7. अंगूठी का नग होना
1. बहुत सुन्दर
2.  छिपा हुआ
3. बहुत प्रिय
4. बहुत कीमती


Ques 8. प्रत्युपकार
1. प्रत् + उपकार
2. प्रति + उपकार
3. प्रती + उपकार
4. प्रति + अपकार


Ques 9. भवन
1. मंदिर
2. धाम
3. महल
4. घर


Ques 10. "सैन्धव" का सही अर्थ इनमें से छाटिए-
1. घोडा
2. सिन्धु
3. सागर
4. चन्द्रमा


Ques 11. गिरीश
1. गिरि + इश
2. गिरि + ईश
3. गिर् + इश
4. गिर् + ईश


Ques 12. निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1. कुमुदनी
2. कुमुदुनी
3. कुमुदिनी
4. कुमदुनी


Ques 13. घर
1. विहार
2. इला
3. निकेतन
4. नग


Ques 14. जितेन्द्रय
1. द्वन्द्व
2. बहुव्रीहि
3. कर्मधारय
4. तत्पुरूष


Ques 15. "बिन ब्याहा" शब्द में उपसर्ग है ?
1. बा
2. बे
3. बिन्
4. बिन


Ques 16. तुलसीदास ने कहा है कि ‘विनाश काल में मनुष्य की बुद्धि भ्रष्ट हो जाती हैं।’
1. साधारण वाक्य
2. सरल वाक्य
3. संयुक्त वाक्य
4. मिश्र वाक्य


Ques 17. सदुपदेश
1. विसर्ग संधि
2. व्यंजन संधि
3. अयादि संधि
4. यण संधि


Ques 18. "पर्यवेक्षण" में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग एवं मूल शब्द है ?
1. पर्य + अव + ईक्षण
2. परि+ अव + ईक्षण
3. परी + अब + ईक्षण
4. पर्यव + ईक्षण


Ques 19. थोक
1. परचून
2. थाक
3. थोया
4. पर्यायिक


Ques 20. निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1. उद्योगीकरण
2. ओद्योगीकरण
3. औद्योगिकरण
4. औद्योगीकरण


Ques 21. किरण
1. प्रभा
2. रवि
3. हिमांषु
4. मरीचि


Ques 22. विशिष्ट अवसर पर विशिष्ट लोगों के समक्ष दिया गया विद्वतापूर्ण भाषण।
1. सम्भाषण
2. अभिभाषण
3. अपभाषण
4. अनुभाषण


Ques 23. अक्षय
1. कभी न नष्ट होने वाला
2. नष्ट होने वाला
3. फैंलने वाला
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं


Ques 24. अरविन्द
1. अरब निवासी
2. अरबी
3. कमल
4. भ्रमर


Ques 25. निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1. रसायनिक
2. रासायनिक
3. रासायनीक
4. रसयनीक


Instruction : आपको किसी महत्वपूर्ण परीक्षा की तैयारी में क्या कठिनाई हो रही है? क्या ऐसा करने में समय की कमी महसूस हो रही है? अगर आपका जावाब ‘हाँ’ है, तो आपको समय प्रबंधन सीखने की जरूरत है | समय प्रबंधन किसी भी परीक्षा की तैयारी का सबसे महत्वपूर्ण पहलू है | बहुत से परीक्षार्थी ऐसे हैं, जो परीक्षाओं की तैयारी देर से और बेतरतीब ढंग से शुरू करते हैं, जिससे उन्हें समयाभाव सबसे बड़े शत्रु की तरह दिखने लगता है | बिना समय प्रबंधन के उस अनुपात में फायदा नहीं हो पाटा, जिस अनुपात में आप मेहनत करते हैं | वास्तव में समय की गति को या उसके स्वभाव को मैनेज नहीं किया जा सकता, क्योंकि न तो इसे धीमा किया जा सकता है और न ही रोका जा सकता है | आप स्वयं को मैनेज करते हुए सिर्फ इसका सही उपयोग कर सकते है | वास्तविकता यही है | सबसे पहले आप यह निर्धारित करें की आपका वर्तमान समय कैसे व्यतीत हो रहा है | आप पिछले एक सप्ताह के अपने कार्यकलाप को एक पेपर पर लिखकर देखिये कि आपने टाईमटेबल का कितना और कैसा अनुसरण किया है | पूरे सप्ताह में कितने घंटे सेल्फ-स्टडी की है और आपका निर्धारित सिलेबस का कितना हिस्सा नहीं हो पाया है | एक बार पूरा विश्लेषण करने के बाद आप स्वयं को समय के हिसाब से बदलना शुरू कर सकते हैं | समय बचाने के लिए किसी विशेषज्ञ की टिप्स काम आ सकती है परन्तु सबसे अधिक प्रभाव आपके निश्चय, समर्पण और समय नियोजन का रहेगा | समय प्रबंधन आपके आत्मविश्वास को बढ़ाएगा और यह सफलता की दिशा में निर्णायक होगा(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)
Ques 26. ‘महत्वपूर्ण’ पद का समास-विग्रह होगा
1. महत्व से पूर्ण
2. महत्व और पूर्ण
3. महत्व में पूर्ण
4. महत्व के लिए पूर्ण


Ques 27. समय का आभाव उन्हें शत्रु जैसा लगता है, जो
1. परीक्षाओं को महत्वपूर्ण नहीं मानते
2. परीक्षाओं की तैयारी गंभीरता से करते हैं
3. परीक्षाओं की तैयारी बेतरतीब ढंग से करते हैं
4. परीक्षाओं की तैयारी करना ही नहीं चाहते


Ques 28. समय के बारे में सच है की उसे
1. रोका जा सकता है
2. धीमा किया जा सकता है
3. लौटाया जा सकता है
4. मैनेज नहीं किया जा सकता है


Ques 29. समय प्रबंधन सीखने की जरूरत कब है?
1. जब अवसर खो देने की संभावना हो
2. जब कोई परीक्षा देनी हो
3. जब अच्चा व्यवसाय चुनना हो
4. जब कुछ करने के लिए समय कम पड़े


Ques 30. ‘सेल्फ-स्टडी’ शब्द है
1. देशज
2. तत्सम
3. तदभव
4. आगत


Answers are:
Ques 1: 3
Ques 2: 3
Ques 3: 4
Ques 4: 4
Ques 5: 4
Ques 6: 2
Ques 7: 4
Ques 8: 2
Ques 9: 4
Ques 10: 1
Ques 11: 2
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 3
Ques 14: 2
Ques 15: 4
Ques 16: 4
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 2
Ques 19: 1
Ques 20: 3
Ques 21: 4
Ques 22: 2
Ques 23: 3
Ques 24: 3
Ques 25: 2
Ques 26: 1
Ques 27: 3
Ques 28: 4
Ques 29: 4
Ques 30: 4


Section : Language II (English)

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Recession
2. Recesion
3. Reccesion
4. Reccession


Ques 2. Going where no other exchange has gone before’ seems to be the new-found mantra of Indian commodity exchanges as they aggressively _______ with each other to introduce trading in commodities that had never been traded anywhere else.
A. Vie
B. Compete
C. Combat
D. Debate
1. AD
2. B,C
3. C,D
4. A,B


Ques 3. Fifteen (A) / percent of India’s land is still (B) / covered (C) / by forrests. (D) / All correct (E)
1. Fifteen
2. still
3. covered
4. forrests


Ques 4. Eccentric
1. Destructive
2. Deceitful
3. Conformist
4. Unconventional


Ques 5. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Dictionery
2. Dicssionary
3. Dictionary
4. Dicssionery


Ques 6. I. An erstwhile ___________ department in the ministry of commerce, the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), was put in ___________ of this transformation.
II. A ___________ driver was arrested yesterday on a drunk driving __________ on the Delhi-Chandigarh Highway.
1. headstrong arraign
2. lazy, impeach
3. inactive, headlong
4. slumber, contact


Ques 7. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Determinasion
2. Determination
3. Detirmination
4. Detrmination


Ques 8. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Variabillity
2. Variabilitty
3. Variebility
4. Variability


Ques 9. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Intermittently
2. Intermitantly
3. Intarmittantly
4. Intarmitently


Ques 10. Encountered
1. Face
2. Solved
3. Entertained
4. Entered


Ques 11. Capricious
1. Caustic
2. Predictable
3. Prescient
4. Cogent


Ques 12. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Jaundiec
2. Jhaundice
3. Jaundice
4. Jhondice


Ques 13. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Foyere
2. Foyer
3. Foayer
4. Fouyer


Ques 14. Going to the dogs
1. Reaching a bad state
2. Reaching success after much efforts
3. Very annoyed
4. To sniff something wrong


Ques 15. VORACIOUS
1. very bad
2. insatiable
3. stingy
4. malicious


Ques 16. Make someone the scapegoat for something
1. To make to bear the sins for others
2. Enjoy different opportunities at a single time
3. Take a subordinate position
4. Worried for frivolous things


Ques 17. Counterfeit
1. destructive
2. genuine
3. affirm
4. harmonize


Ques 18. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Cabage
2. Cabbege
3. Cabbage
4. Cabagge


Ques 19. With only three trading sessions left in March, foreign investors have sold a net $1.12 billion in Indian debt and are now on the __________ of turning net sellers for the year so far.
A. Adjoin
B. Center
C. Verge
D. Brink
1. B,C
2. C,D
3. A,C
4. A,B


Ques 20. He said that employees picked for jobs in India often act as though they have drawn the short straw.
1. Unfavorable outcome
2. Desired result
3. Exaggerate
4. Camouflage


Ques 21. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Separately
2. Seperately
3. Seperatley
4. Separatly


Ques 22. TACTFUL
1. diplomatic
2. indifferent
3. intelligent
4. deceitful


Ques 23. Genial
1. Generous
2. Wonderful
3. Liberal
4. Friendly and cheerful


Ques 24. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Precaution
2. Precausion
3. Pricaution
4. Precotion


Ques 25. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Budgetery
2. Bugetary
3. Budgetary
4. Budgetry


Instruction : A day can be (1) in human life when people will welcome the summer season. Sounds insensible? But it is true because the scorching summer also holds in it (2) light and heat we can receive from the sun and then transform that light into diverse forms of energy to run our air-conditioners and everything that today depends on electricity. Now, think again … won't you welcome the summer season?

At this juncture of human progress when (3) sources of energy used till now are fast depleting, tapping solar energy is the only (4) . The Centre for Science and Environment reports an average 8° growth in global temperature in the past few decades which (5) alarm for finding ways to fight the heat. Amazingly, the Sun itself provides antidote to its heat!
(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)

Ques 26. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. knocks
2. fixes
3. arranges
4. turns


Ques 27. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. problem
2. solution
3. question
4. doubt


Ques 28. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. conditional
2. current
3. irregular
4. conventional


Ques 29. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. immense
2. massive
3. little
4. minute


Ques 30. Solve as per the DIRECTION given above:
1. conceived
2. depicted
3. imagined
4. projected


Answers are:
Ques 1: 1
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 4
Ques 4: 4
Ques 5: 3
Ques 6: 5
Ques 7: 2
Ques 8: 4
Ques 9: 1
Ques 10: 1
Ques 11: 2
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 2
Ques 14: 1
Ques 15: 2
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 3
Ques 19: 2
Ques 20: 1
Ques 21: 1
Ques 22: 1
Ques 23: 4
Ques 24: 1
Ques 25: 3
Ques 26: 5
Ques 27: 2
Ques 28: 4
Ques 29: 1
Ques 30: 3


Section : Mathematics

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1.

A and B take part in 100 m race. A runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats him by 8 seconds. The speed of B is:

1. 5.15 kmph
2. 4.14 kmph
3. 4.25 kmph
4. 4.4 kmph


Ques 2. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
1. 9000
2. 9400
3. 9600
4. 9800


Ques 3. How many minimum number of colours will be required to paint all the sides of a cube without the adjacent sides having the same colours ?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6


Ques 4.

Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20 minutes, and 10 minutes respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge chemical solutions P,Q and R respectively. What is the proportion of the solution R in the liquid in the tank after 3 minutes?

1. (5/11)
2. (6/11)
3. (7/11)
4. (8/11)


Ques 5. A has 50 coins of 10 paise denominations. While B has 10 coins of 50 paise denominations. C has 20 coins of 25 paise denominations while D has 25 coins of 20 paise denominations. The average number of paise per person is :
1. 450 paise
2. 500 paise
3. 570 paise
4. 540 paise


Ques 6. 30.A and B take 15 and 20 days respectively. They worked for 4 days, and then the fraction of work left was
1. 15-Aug
2. 15-Jul
3. 15-Jun
4. 15-Nov


Ques 7. If a 200 m long train crosses a platform of the same length as that of the train in 20 seconds, then the speed of the train is
1. 70 km/hr
2. 72 km/hr
3. 74 km/hr
4. 76 km/hr


Ques 8. If A:B=2:3,B:C=4:5 and C:D =5:9 then A:D is equal to
1. 12/30/1899 11:17:00 AM
2. 12/30/1899 8:27:00 AM
3. 12/30/1899 5:09:00 AM
4. 12/30/1899 2:09:00 AM


Ques 9. The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 6% per annum payable half-yearly is:
1. 6.06%
2. 6.07%
3. 6.08%
4. 6.09%


Ques 10. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 metres long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 seconds, is:
1. 250 M
2. 225 M
3. 245 M
4. 230 M


Ques 11. An express train traveled at an average speed of 100 km/hr, stopping for 3 minutes after every 75 km.. How long did it take to reach its destination 600 km from the starting point?
1. 6 hrs 30 min
2. 6 hrs 49 min
3. 6 hrs 45 min
4. 6 hrs 21 min


Ques 12. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
1. 40.2 cm
2. 28.9 cm
3. 29.2 cm
4. 30.8 cm


Ques 13. Weights of two friends Ram and Shyam are in the ratio 4:5. Ram's weight increased 10% and total weight of Ram and Shyam become 82.8 kg, with an increases of 15%. By what percent did the weight of Shyam increase?
1. 19%
2. 10%
3. 21%
4. 16%


Ques 14. A man on tour travels first 160 km at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km at 80 km/hr. The average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is:
1. 71 Km/hr
2. 36 Km/hr
3. 71.11 Km/hr
4. 35.55 Km/hr


Ques 15. A 270 metres long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train running in opposite direction at the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the length of the other train?
1. 230 Meter
2. 300 meter
3. 320 Meter
4. 330 Meter


Ques 16. A man travels equal distances of his journey at 40, 30 and 15 km/h. respectively. Find his average for whole journey.
1. 24
2. 25
3. 27
4. 28


Ques 17. The cost of packaging of the mangoes is 40% the cost of fresh mangoes themselves. The cost of mangoes increased by 30% but the cost of packaging decreased by 50%, then the percentage change of the cost of packed mangoes, if the cost of packed mangoes is equal to the sum of the cost of fresh mangoes and cost of packaging :
1. 14.17%
2. 7.14%
3. 8.87%
4. 6.66%


Ques 18. A train speeds past a pole in 15 seconds and a platform 100 m long in 25 seconds. Its length is
1. 100m
2. 120m
3. 150m
4. 180m


Ques 19. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?
1. 52
2. 65
3. 67
4. 72


Ques 20. If the simple interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs. 50, what is the compound interest on the same at the same rate and for the same time?
1. Rs. 51.25
2. Rs. 52
3. Rs. 54.25
4. Rs. 60


Ques 21. 50 minutes is what percentage of a day (approx.)-
1. 3.50%
2. 4%
3. 5%
4. 6%


Ques 22. From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30º. If the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:
1. 149 m
2. 156 m
3. 173 m
4. 200 m


Ques 23. A man can cover a distance in 1hr 24min by covering 2/3 of the distance at 4 km/h and the rest at 5km/h. The total distance is
1. 5km
2. 6km
3. 7km
4. 8km


Ques 24. ?, 6, 30, 120, 360, 720
1. 5
2. 8
3. 1
4. 3


Ques 25.

A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:

1. 145º
2. 150º
3. 155º
4. 160º


Ques 26. A starts business with Rs. 3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B's contribution in the capital?
1. Rs. 7500
2. Rs. 8000
3. Rs. 8500
4. Rs. 9000


Ques 27.

Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 8


Ques 28. The average age of A, B, C, D and E is 40 years. The average age of A and B is 35 years and the average of C and D is 42 years. Age of E is :
1. 48
2. 46
3. 42
4. 45


Ques 29. By selling a bicycle for ₹ 2,850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be
1. ₹ 2600
2. ₹2700
3. ₹ 2800
4. ₹ 3000


Ques 30.

If the true discount on s sum due 2 years hence at 14% per annum be Rs. 168, the sum due is:

1. Rs. 768
2. Rs. 968
3. Rs. 1960
4. Rs. 2400


Answers are:
Ques 1: 2
Ques 2: 3
Ques 3: 1
Ques 4: 2
Ques 5: 2
Ques 6: 1
Ques 7: 2
Ques 8: 2
Ques 9: 4
Ques 10: 3
Ques 11: 4
Ques 12: 4
Ques 13: 1
Ques 14: 3
Ques 15: 1
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 3
Ques 19: 2
Ques 20: 1
Ques 21: 1
Ques 22: 3
Ques 23: 2
Ques 24: 3
Ques 25: 3
Ques 26: 4
Ques 27: 1
Ques 28: 2
Ques 29: 2
Ques 30: 1


Section : Environmental Studies

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Cow dung can be used
1. as manure
2. for production of biogas
3. both (a) and (b)
4. none of these


Ques 2. Recycled water can be used for
1. Crop irrigation
2. Landscape gardening
3. Replenishing fast depleting aquifers
4. All of these


Ques 3. Liquefied petroleum gas is a mixture of
1. Propane and butane
2. Methane and propane
3. Methane and butane
4. Methane and ethane


Ques 4. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by
1. Galvanic cells
2. Electrolytic cells
3. Hydrogen fuel cells
4. Solar photovoltaic system


Ques 5. Use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) came into effect from
1. Dec 2000
2. 1-Dec
3. 2-Dec
4. 3-Dec


Ques 6. Noise pollution limit in industrial area is
1. 65 dB
2. 80 dB
3. 95 dB
4. 100 dB


Ques 7. Which of the following is a natural source of environmental pollution?
1. Earthquake
2. Automobiles
3. Industries
4. Sewage


Ques 8. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting
1. wet scrubber
2. catalytic converter
3. electrostatic precipitator
4. all the above


Ques 9. 'Minamata' disease is caused by
1. Lead
2. Arsenic
3. Mercury
4. Cadmium


Ques 10. Which of the following is a natural source of Air pollution?
1. Storms
2. Acid rain
3. Precipitation
4. Volcanic eruptions


Ques 11. The major green house gas which is responsible for causing about 60% of the green house effect on earth among the following is
1. Nitrogen
2. Methane
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Carbon monoxide


Ques 12. Important sources of land pollution are
1. Industrial Wastes
2. Agricultural Wastes
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of the above


Ques 13. Climate and global air circulations are mainly affected by the properties of
1. Temperature
2. Precipitation
3. Water and air
4. None of the above


Ques 14. The main impact of urbanization on plant and animal life is
1. Loss of species
2. Mutation in species
3. Increase in species
4. None of these


Ques 15. Global atmospheric temperatures are likely to be increased due to
1. Burning of fossil fuels
2. Water pollution
3. Soil erosion
4. None of the above


Ques 16. What is the maximum allowable concentration of fluorides in drinking water
1. 1.5 mg/L
2. 2.0 mg/L
3. 2.5 mg/L
4. 3.0 mg/L


Ques 17. During green house effect, carbon dioxide and water vapours absorbs,
1. UV radiations
2. Solar radiation
3. Short wave radiations
4. Long wave radiations


Ques 18. Domestic sewage is
1. Waste water from industries
2. Waste water from residential areas
3. Waste water generated from kitchens and bathrooms
4. None of the above


Ques 19. Acid rains are more prominent in
1. Arid regions
2. Tropical regions
3. Temperate regions
4. Equally prominent in all


Ques 20. The equivalent of one Dobson unit is
1. 0.1 m
2. 0.01 m
3. 0.1 mm
4. 0.01 mm


Ques 21. Ozone hole is said to occur when the ozone level decreases below
1. 2 DU
2. 20 DU
3. 200 DU
4. 2000 DU


Ques 22. The radiations absorbed by ozone layer are
1. Ultra-violet
2. Infra-red
3. Gamma rays
4. Visible


Ques 23. Karnataka State Pollution Control Board was established in the year
1. 1971
2. 1972
3. 1973
4. 1974


Ques 24. First International Earth summit was held at
1. Germany
2. Stockholm
3. Johannesburg
4. Riode Janeiro


Ques 25. Amount of Carbon Dioxide(CO2) content in atmospheric Air is normally
1. 0.21%
2. 0.32%
3. 0.42%
4. 0.43%


Ques 26. EPA means :
1. Environmental Protection Act
2. Environmental Prevention Act
3. Environmental Pollution Act
4. Environmental Protection Agency


Ques 27. Environmental protection is the responsibility of
1. Individuals
2. NGO's
3. Government of India
4. All of the above


Ques 28. Environment Protection Act of 1986 is meant for
1. Waste management
2. Forest management
3. Desert management
4. Protection of human environment including human[comma] plants[comma] animals and property


Ques 29. Expansion of the term WWF is
1. Worldwide forest
2. World wild life fund
3. Worldwide life force
4. Worldwide life forest


Ques 30. In which year the Hon'ble supreme court ofIndia made environmental education compulsory subject at all the levels of education
1. 2000
2. 2001
3. 2002
4. 2003


Answers are:
Ques 1: 3
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 1
Ques 4: 4
Ques 5: 3
Ques 6: 2
Ques 7: 1
Ques 8: 4
Ques 9: 3
Ques 10: 4
Ques 11: 3
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 1
Ques 14: 1
Ques 15: 1
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 4
Ques 18: 3
Ques 19: 1
Ques 20: 4
Ques 21: 3
Ques 22: 1
Ques 23: 4
Ques 24: 2
Ques 25: 2
Ques 26: 1
Ques 27: 4
Ques 28: 4
Ques 29: 2
Ques 30: 4



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