Multiple Choice Question and Answer for UPTET Paper 1 (Hindi, English) Model Paper 10 (Marks : 150.00)
Section :
Child Development and Methodology and Pedagogy
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
"The ""Academy"" was founded in"
1.
Chakis
2.
Athens
3.
Stagira
4.
Macedonia
Ques
2.
The three domains of Bloom's taxonomy are
1.
Cognitive[comma] Affective and Pedagogy
2.
Pedagogy[comma] Affective and Psychomotor
3.
Cognitive[comma] Affective and Psychomotor
4.
Cognitive[comma] Pedagogy and Psychomotor
Ques
3.
The affective domain involves
1.
manner
2.
learning
3.
knowledge
4.
physical movement
Ques
4.
The psychomotor domain involves
1.
manner
2.
learning
3.
knowledge
4.
physical movement
Ques
5.
The simplest skill in cognitive domain of Bloom's taxonomy is
1.
evaluating
2.
synthesizing
3.
remembering
4.
understanding
Ques
6.
The most complex skill in cognitive domain of Bloom's taxonomy is
1.
evaluating
2.
synthesizing
3.
characterizing
4.
understanding
Ques
7.
The most complex skill of Bloom's taxonomy is
1.
evaluating
2.
originating
3.
synthesizing
4.
characterizing
Ques
8.
To break information into parts and to examine the information is called
1.
analyzing
2.
evaluating
3.
originating
4.
synthesizing
Ques
9.
To compile the information into pattern and propose a plan is called
1.
analyzing
2.
evaluating
3.
originating
4.
synthesizing
Ques
10.
When the topic or an area of a course contains a lot of information, it is recommended to use
1.
lecture method
2.
assignment method
3.
cooperative method
4.
inquiry-based method
Ques
11.
The skill when students try to build abstract knowledge is called
1.
evaluating
2.
originating
3.
synthesizing
4.
characterizing
Ques
12.
Formative assessment is an assessment __________ learning.
Ques
13.
Summative assessment is an assessment __________ learning.
Ques
14.
An assessment use to identify difficulties in the learning process is called
1.
initial assessment
2.
formative assessment
3.
diagnostic assessment
4.
summative assessment
Ques
15.
An assessment use to determine a person's ability in a particular field of studies is called
1.
evaluation
2.
aptitude test
3.
measurement
4.
diagnostic test
Ques
16.
Reliability of an assessment relates to the __________ of an assessment.
1.
quality
2.
relevance
3.
usefulness
4.
consistency
Ques
17.
Validity of an assessment relates to the __________ of an assessment.
1.
quality
2.
relevance
3.
usefulness
4.
consistency
Ques
18.
A process of looking at what is being assessed is called
1.
rubrics
2.
evaluation
3.
assessment
4.
measurement
Ques
19.
Which act of teacher foster a sense of autonomy in the learning process?
1.
delegator
2.
instructor
3.
facilitator
4.
formal authority
Ques
20.
Smallest unit of meaning in a language is
1.
Syntax
2.
Morpheme
3.
Pragmatics
4.
Phoneme
Ques
21.
According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the Concrete operational stage starts at age
Ques
22.
Nature of children are like
1.
Imitative
2.
Constructive
3.
Imaginative
4.
Destructive
Ques
23.
"The word ""Pedagogy"" means?"
1.
to guide the child
2.
to lead the child
3.
to educate the child
4.
to understand the child
Ques
24.
Progressive education emphasizes learning by
1.
doing
3.
reading
4.
enjoying
Ques
25.
Adolescents may experience
1.
feeling of self-actualization
2.
feeling of satiation about life
3.
anxiety and concern about themselves
4.
feeling of fear about sins committed in childhood.
Ques
26.
A girl student shows talent and interest in science but her parents are pushing her to take humanities stream. What advice would you suggest to the girl?
1.
To listen to her parents
2.
To be focused on her favorite subjects
3.
Talk to her parents and point out her talent
4.
Encourage her to try for scholarships; so that she can study the subject of her interest
Ques
27.
According to Jean Piaget, children are no longer egocentric when entering
1.
Sensorimotor stage
2.
Preoperational stage
3.
Formal operational stage
4.
Concrete operational stage
Ques
28.
In case of spending money, the virtue is __________ between wastefulness and stringiness.
1.
real
2.
prodigal
3.
lavishness
4.
generosity
Ques
29.
Select the educable group of students from the following groups, indicating different I.Q. levels
1.
50 to 70
2.
30 to 50
3.
70 to 90
4.
40 to 80
Ques
30.
The cognitive domain involves
1.
manner
2.
learning
3.
knowledge
4.
physical movement
Answers are:
Ques
1:
2
Ques
2:
3
Ques
3:
1
Ques
4:
4
Ques
5:
3
Ques
6:
1
Ques
7:
2
Ques
8:
1
Ques
9:
4
Ques
10:
1
Ques
11:
4
Ques
12:
4
Ques
13:
1
Ques
14:
3
Ques
15:
2
Ques
16:
4
Ques
17:
2
Ques
18:
2
Ques
19:
1
Ques
20:
2
Ques
21:
4
Ques
22:
1
Ques
23:
2
Ques
24:
1
Ques
25:
1
Ques
26:
4
Ques
27:
4
Ques
28:
4
Ques
29:
1
Ques
30:
3
Section :
Language I (Hindi)
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए
1.
बडे दुःख की बात है कि
2.
डाक्टर के आने से पहले ही
3.
उसके प्राण।पखेरू उड गए
4.
कोई त्रुटि नही।
Ques
2.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
त्रिदोष
2.
तिरदोष
3.
त्रिदोष
4.
नृदोष
1.
मधुकर
2.
पुष्प
3.
विहिप
4.
वन
1.
इच्छा करने वाला
2.
प्रष्न पूछने वाला
3.
प्रष्न बनाने वाला
4.
पृष्ठ देने वाला
1.
अनन्वय
2.
व्यतिरेक
3.
अतुल
4.
उपमेय
Ques
6.
"अलबत्ता" शब्द में उपसर्ग है ?
1.
उद्घोष
2.
उघाडना
3.
उद्घाटन
4.
उन्मीलन
1.
अज्ञानी
2.
मूर्ख
3.
निपुणताहीन
4.
अनभिज्ञ
Ques
9.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए।
1.
आपके इन्ही गुणों के कारण ही तो लोग
2.
तुम्हारी यषोगाथा का वर्णन करते
3.
अघाते नहीं
4.
कोई त्रुटि नही।
1.
तिरस्कार
2.
अहंकार
3.
स्वाभीमान
4.
गर्व
Ques
11.
जो किसी का हित चाहता हो।
1.
हितकारी
2.
अहितकारी
3.
हितैषी
4.
हितभोगी
1.
तीव्र
2.
तृष्णा
3.
त्यागी
4.
कुंठित
1.
अनीक
2.
सैनिक
3.
अरि
4.
अतनु
1.
इन्कार करना
2.
तिरस्कार करना
3.
नासमझी दिखाना
4.
खुशामद करना
Ques
15.
नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से "क्षेपक" शब्द का सही तात्पर्य चयन कीजिए-
1.
दूसरों को क्षमा करने वाला
2.
शत्रु पर घातक वार करने वाला
3.
किस ग्रंथ में अन्य व्यक्ति द्वारा जोडा गया भाग
4.
किसी व्यक्ति द्वारा छोडे गए कार्य को पूरा करने वाला
1.
गुलाब
2.
पद्म
3.
अंदाज
4.
काजल
Ques
17.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
उन्नती
2.
उनति
3.
उन्नती
4.
उन्नति
1.
जलज
2.
अग्रज
3.
अनिल
4.
प्रमाण
Ques
19.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
क्यारी
2.
कीयारि
3.
कियारी
4.
कीयारी
Ques
20.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए
1.
राम राज्य में
2.
शेर और बकरी एक घाट
3.
पर पानी पीती थी
4.
कोई त्रुटि नही।
Ques
21.
किस शब्द में उपसर्ग का उपयोग नहीं किया गया है ?
1.
अच्छाई
2.
अनुच्छेद
3.
परिच्छेद
4.
1.
योजन
2.
विघटन
3.
वियोजन
4.
नियोजन
Ques
23.
निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1.
युधिष्ठिर
2.
युद्धिष्टर
3.
युधिष्टर
4.
युद्विष्ठर
1.
ईष्वर
2.
कृष्ण
3.
कामदेव
4.
बसंत
Ques
25.
किस शब्द में "अन्" उपसर्ग का उपयोग किया गया है ?
1.
अनावष्यक
2.
अनाचार
3.
अनादर
4.
Ques
26.
सत्कार" में उपसर्ग है ?
Ques
27.
"संस्कार" में किस उपसर्ग का प्रयोग हुआ है ?
Ques
28.
निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से किसमें विसर्ग संधि है ?
1.
उज्जवल
2.
निष्चल
3.
राजेन्द्र
4.
दुर्गम
1.
कर्मधारय
2.
द्विगु
3.
बहुब्रीहि
4.
तत्पुरूष
1.
प्राचीन
2.
भूतकालिक
3.
पुरातन
4.
विगतकालीन
Answers are:
Ques
1:
3
Ques
2:
3
Ques
3:
4
Ques
4:
3
Ques
5:
4
Ques
6:
3
Ques
7:
4
Ques
8:
4
Ques
9:
4
Ques
10:
4
Ques
11:
3
Ques
12:
4
Ques
13:
1
Ques
14:
4
Ques
15:
3
Ques
16:
4
Ques
17:
4
Ques
18:
3
Ques
19:
2
Ques
20:
3
Ques
21:
1
Ques
22:
3
Ques
23:
1
Ques
24:
3
Ques
25:
4
Ques
26:
2
Ques
27:
1
Ques
28:
2
Ques
29:
3
Ques
30:
3
Section :
Language II (English)
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
Rahul Gandhi was fighting an unequal battle with his back to the wall but he negotiated with the local agitators and managed to bring them into the Congress platform.
1.
Start all over again
2.
Few viable options
3.
Become fit and healthy
4.
Responsible for problems
Ques
2.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Remitance
2.
Raimittance
3.
Remittance
4.
Remitence
Ques
3.
Opening up the Capital Account too will __________ some of the pressure on the RBI . Exchange controls were introduced as a temporary war time __________ in 1939, but were abolished by the UK in 1979 and by Australia in 198
3. Even smaller countries like Israel have abolished exchange control. India continues to hold onto measures taken __________ its colonial past.
1.
relieve measure during
2.
ease, step, for
3.
alleviate, appraise, within
4.
build, procedure, throughout
Ques
4.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Cashier
2.
Casheir
3.
Cashhier
4.
Cashiere
Ques
5.
Many joggers and dog walkers in the park appeared __________, joining the overwhelming majority of residents battling on without masks. Children played cricketand men read newspapers in _________ so thick that the park's ancient Islamic monuments were __________ visible in the gloom.
1.
unfazed, smog, barely
2.
cleared, rain, largely
3.
lazy, winter, vaguely
4.
dazed, water, highly
1.
To tell people about someone’s secrets
2.
To encourage someone in his bad times
3.
To do too much of something
4.
Once in a life-time
Ques
7.
More often (A) / then (B) / not we feel concerned (C) / with the development around (D) / us. All correct (E)
1.
often
2.
then
3.
concerned
4.
around
Ques
8.
This suit fits him to a nicety.
1.
not properly
2.
exactly
3.
to an extent
4.
loosely
Ques
9.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Vagebond
2.
Vegabonde
3.
Vegabond
4.
Vagabond
Ques
10.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Ommitted
2.
Omitted
3.
Omited
4.
Ommited
Ques
11.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Reservoir
2.
Resservoir
3.
Reservoer
4.
Resarvoir
Ques
12.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Tarrific
2.
Terific
3.
Terrific
4.
Tarific
1.
Dissident
2.
Believer
3.
Offender
4.
Orthodox
Ques
14.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Flourist
2.
Flowerist
3.
Florist
4.
Floorist
Ques
15.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Haroscope
2.
Harosecope
3.
Horoscope
4.
Haroescope
1.
wise saying
2.
witty guip
3.
clever argument
4.
grammatical error
Ques
17.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Untill
2.
Until
3.
Untel
4.
Unttil
Ques
18.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Commemorate
2.
Comemmorate
3.
Comemorate
4.
Comemorrate
Ques
19.
Find the correctly spelt word.
1.
Eccumenikal
2.
Ecumenical
3.
Ecuemenicel
4.
Ekumanical
Ques
20.
Entities which have joined in the race to buy Blackstone’s BlueRidge SEZ in Pune include Shapoorji Pallonji-Allianz and Singapore-based Ascendas-Singbridge among others.
1.
Participate
2.
Invited
3.
Engaging
4.
Unite
Ques
21.
Let's put our heads together and come up with a solution to this problem.
1.
Confer
2.
Debate
3.
Argue
4.
Both A and C
1.
meditate
2.
become serious
3.
deteriorate
4.
retreat
1.
friendly
2.
negative
3.
positive
4.
inimical
Ques
24.
Take something with a pinch of salt
1.
Believing something with a doubt
2.
To keep people at a distance
3.
To interfere in someone’s affairs
4.
To lose a sustained share/position
Ques
25.
A. It has been prone to systemic failures.
B. If it has retained substantial strength in the tactical field#@# it is in spite of the slow moving system.
C. This could be tolerated in the past but can be catastrophic in a nuclear weapons environment.
D. The Indian security system with its colonial structures is quite unsuited to manage the demands of defence in strategic and operational terms.
1.
ACBD
2.
DBAC
3.
CBAD
4.
BCAD
Instruction : (A) The deep deciduous forests and the catches of all grassland, far removed from civilisation, have become shelter for dangerous terrorists.
(B) This same quality, however, which once made Manas such a refreshing change, has now become the cause for major concern.
(C) One of Manas’ greatest assets has been its seclusion from human habitation.
(D) Their assault on it can be gauged from the fact that, venison is being sold at Rs. 3 to 4 a kg in the villages bordering the forest.
(E) Armed with sophisticated as well as crude homemade weapons, they have total disregard for wildlife.
(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)
Ques
26.
Which of the sentences should come FIFTH in the sequence ?
Ques
27.
Which of the sentences should come FOURTH in the sequence ?
Ques
28.
Which of the sentences should come THIRD in the sequence ?
Ques
29.
Which of the sentences should come SECOND in the sequence ?
Ques
30.
Which of the sentences should come FIRST in the sequence ?
Answers are:
Ques
1:
2
Ques
2:
3
Ques
3:
1
Ques
4:
1
Ques
5:
1
Ques
6:
3
Ques
7:
2
Ques
8:
2
Ques
9:
4
Ques
10:
2
Ques
11:
1
Ques
12:
3
Ques
13:
4
Ques
14:
3
Ques
15:
3
Ques
16:
4
Ques
17:
2
Ques
18:
1
Ques
19:
2
Ques
20:
1
Ques
21:
1
Ques
22:
4
Ques
23:
1
Ques
24:
1
Ques
25:
2
Ques
26:
1
Ques
27:
2
Ques
28:
3
Ques
29:
4
Ques
30:
5
Section :
Mathematics
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
The actual area of a rectangle is 60 Cm2, but while measuring its length a student decreases it by 20% and the breadth increases by 25%. The percentage error in area, calculated by the student is :
1.
5%
2.
15%
3.
20%
4.
No change
Ques
2.
A train 110 m long is traveling at a speed of 58 kmph. The time in which it will pass a passer by, walking at 4 kmph in the same direction,is
1.
5 2/3 s
2.
6 1/3 s
3.
7 1/3 s
4.
6 2/3 s
Ques
3.
A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
1.
20 hours
2.
25 hours
3.
35 hours
4.
55 hours
Ques
4.
The least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20% compound interest will be more than doubled is:
Ques
5.
If a:b:c=3:4:7, then the ratio (a+b+c):c is equal to
1.
12/30/1899 2:01:00 AM
2.
12/30/1899 2:03:00 PM
3.
12/30/1899 7:02:00 AM
4.
12/30/1899 1:02:00 AM
Ques
6.
In an election between two candidates, the winner got 65% of the total votes cast and won the election by a majority of 2748 votes. What is the total number of votes cast if no vote is declared invalid?
1.
8580
2.
8720
3.
9000
4.
9160
Ques
7.
The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 is:
1.
74
2.
94
3.
184
4.
364
Ques
8.
A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5 km/hr. The man's speed against the current is:
1.
8.5 km/hr
2.
9 km/hr
3.
10 km/hr
4.
12.5 km/hr
Ques
9.
A train is moving at speed of 132kmph. If the length of the train is 110 meters, how long will it take to cross a railway platform 165 m long?
1.
6.0 s
2.
7.5 s
3.
7.0 s
4.
8.5 s
Ques
10.
In a camp, there is a meal for 120 men or 200 children. If 150 children have taken the meal, how many men will be catered to with remaining meal?
Ques
11.
The least number which when divided by 5, 6 , 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided by 9 leaves no remainder, is:
1.
1677
2.
1683
3.
2523
4.
3363
Ques
12.
A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m x 36 m. From each of its corners, a square is cut off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box (in m3) is:
1.
4830
2.
5120
3.
6420
4.
8960
Ques
13.
A man bought 20 shares of Rs. 50 at 5 discount, the rate of dividend being 13
. The rate of interest obtained is:
1.
12 1 % 2
2.
13 1 % 2
3.
15%
4.
16 2 % 3
Ques
14.
A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct?
1.
2 p.m. on Tuesday
2.
2 p.m. on Wednesday
3.
3 p.m. on Thursday
4.
1 p.m. on Friday
Ques
15.
A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively?
1.
2:01
2.
3:02
3.
8:03
4.
Cannot be determined
Ques
16.
The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 is:
1.
74
2.
94
3.
184
4.
364
Ques
17.
A man rows to a place 48 km distant and come back in 14 hours. He finds that he can row 4 km with the stream in the same time as 3 km against the stream. The rate of the stream is:
1.
1 km/hr
2.
1.5 km/hr
3.
2 km/hr
4.
2.5 km/hr
Ques
18.
A fort had provision of food for 150 men for 45 days. After 10 days, 25 men left the fort. The number of days for which the remaining food will last, is:
Ques
19.
The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 kms in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is
1.
87.5 km/hr
2.
86.5 km/hr
3.
85.5 km/hr
4.
84.5 km/hr
Ques
20.
A train 700 m long is running at 72kmph. If it crosses a tunnel in I minute, the length of the length of the tunnel is
1.
600m
2.
650m
3.
500m
4.
550m
Ques
21.
A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is:
1.
720
2.
900
3.
1200
4.
1800
Ques
22.
In a 100 m race, A can give B 10 m and C 28 m. In the same race B can give C:
1.
18 m
2.
20 m
3.
27 m
4.
9 m
Ques
23.
Two discount of 8% and 12% are equal to a single discount of:
1.
20%
2.
19.04
3.
22.96
4.
22%
Ques
24.
The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14. The larger of the two numbers is:
1.
276
2.
299
3.
322
4.
345
Ques
25.
A and B are two fixed points 5 cm apart and C is a point on AB such that AC is 3cm. if the length of AC is increased by 6%, the length of CB is decreased by
Ques
26.
If 5 women or 8 girls can do a work in 84 days. In how many days can 10 women and 5 girls can do the same work?
1.
32 days
2.
48 days
3.
52 days
4.
38 days
Ques
27.
What is the next term in the series : 25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
1.
160
2.
140
3.
153
4.
190
Ques
28.
The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 4 and their H.C.F. is 4. Their L.C.M. is:
Ques
29.
A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is:
1.
100 kmph
2.
110 kmph
3.
120 kmph
4.
130 kmph
Ques
30.
A man invested Rs. 1552 in a stock at 97 to obtain an income of Rs. 128. The dividend from the stock is:
1.
7.5%
2.
8%
3.
9.7%
4.
None of these
Answers are:
Ques
1:
4
Ques
2:
3
Ques
3:
3
Ques
4:
2
Ques
5:
1
Ques
6:
4
Ques
7:
4
Ques
8:
3
Ques
9:
2
Ques
10:
2
Ques
11:
2
Ques
12:
2
Ques
13:
3
Ques
14:
2
Ques
15:
3
Ques
16:
4
Ques
17:
1
Ques
18:
1
Ques
19:
1
Ques
20:
3
Ques
21:
3
Ques
22:
2
Ques
23:
2
Ques
24:
3
Ques
25:
4
Ques
26:
1
Ques
27:
1
Ques
28:
4
Ques
29:
3
Ques
30:
2
Section :
Environmental Studies
( Marks :
30.00)
Ques
1.
The adverse effect of modern agriculture is
1.
Soil pollution
2.
Water pollution
3.
Wastes logging
4.
All of these
1.
Rich in nutrients
2.
Treatment of water
3.
End point of the river
4.
Meeting place of river and sea
Ques
3.
Physical pollution of water is due to
1.
PH
2.
Chlorides
3.
Turbidity
4.
All of these
Ques
4.
Smelting of metallic minerals into copper, lead and zinc release large amounts of
1.
Nitric oxide
2.
Carbon dioxide
3.
Sulphur dioxide
4.
Hydrogen Sulphide
Ques
5.
What is the percentage of fresh water available in lakes and streams?
1.
0.10%
2.
0.01%
3.
0.00%
4.
0.00%
Ques
6.
Which is considered as energy source of future?
1.
Wind
2.
Ocean
3.
Hydrogen
4.
None of these
Ques
7.
The fossil fuel which causes maximum environmental pollution due to its use in generation of thermal power is
1.
Oil
2.
Coal
3.
Natural gas
4.
None of these
Ques
8.
The basic element in fossil fuels is
1.
Oxygen
2.
Carbon
3.
Sulphur
4.
Phosphorus
Ques
9.
Hydro electricity is generated from
1.
Forests
2.
Coal plants
3.
Lakes and ponds
4.
Water reservoir of river dams
Ques
10.
Cow dung can be used
1.
as manure
2.
for production of biogas
3.
both (a) and (b)
4.
none of these
Ques
11.
Recycled water can be used for
1.
Crop irrigation
2.
Landscape gardening
3.
Replenishing fast depleting aquifers
4.
All of these
Ques
12.
The maximum average permissible noise levels during day time hours as per environment protection act in India is
1.
30 dB
2.
45 dB
3.
50 dB
4.
55 dB
Ques
13.
Liquid waste generated from Bathrooms and Kitchens are called
1.
Runoff
2.
Sullage
3.
Domestic sewage
4.
All the above
Ques
14.
Trickle irrigation reduces
1.
Percolation
2.
Salinization
3.
Water evaporation
4.
All of these
Ques
15.
Non-point source of water pollution is caused by
1.
Pipes
2.
Ditches
3.
Sewers
4.
Mining wastes
Ques
16.
Global warming means :
1.
Increase in Earth's Body Temperature
2.
Increase in solar radiation
3.
Acid Rain
4.
All the above
Ques
17.
Which of the following is not a Green House Gas?
1.
Ozone
2.
Water vapour
3.
Carbon dioxide
4.
Sulpher dioxide
Ques
18.
Which of the following is not a solution for Global warming?
1.
Deforestation
2.
Plantation of more trees
3.
Reducing fossil fuel consumption
4.
None of the above
Ques
19.
Global warming affects
1.
Climate change
2.
Food production
3.
Melting of glaciers
4.
All of these
Ques
20.
The ozone depletion in the stratosphere is chiefly caused by the release of
1.
Chlorofluoro carbons
2.
Carbon dioxide
3.
Methane
4.
None of these
Ques
21.
Movement of Nutrients from the soil by the Acid Rain is called :
1.
Leaching
2.
Infiltration
3.
Exfiltration
4.
Transpiration
Ques
22.
Thickness of the Ozone layer is measured in which units?
1.
dB
2.
DU
3.
PPB
4.
PPM
Ques
23.
Each chlorine free radical can destroy the number of ozone molecules
1.
100 ozone molecules
2.
1000 ozone molecules
3.
10[comma]000 ozone molecules
4.
100[comma]000 ozone molecules
Ques
24.
World 'Ozone day' is being celebrated on every year
1.
Sept 5th
2.
Sept 16th
3.
Oct 15th
4.
June 5th
Ques
25.
Acid rain affects
1.
Soil
2.
Plants
3.
Materials
4.
All of the above
Ques
26.
Animal husbandry may result in
1.
Genetic Damage
2.
Ozone depletion
3.
Global warming
4.
None of the above
Ques
27.
Freon's are called
1.
Ozone
2.
Methane
3.
Solvents
4.
Hydrocarbons
Ques
28.
Environmental protection is the responsibility of
1.
Individuals
2.
NGO's
3.
Government of India
4.
All of the above
Ques
29.
The objectives of the Wild Life (protection) Act 1972 is
1.
To preserve the biodiversity
2.
Protection and conservation of wild life
3.
To maintain essential ecological and life supporting systems
4.
All the above
Ques
30.
Which of the following is the authority to monitor state industrial effluents?
1.
State pollution control board
2.
Indian environmental association
3.
Centre for science and development
4.
None of these
Answers are:
Ques
1:
4
Ques
2:
4
Ques
3:
3
Ques
4:
2
Ques
5:
2
Ques
6:
3
Ques
7:
2
Ques
8:
2
Ques
9:
4
Ques
10:
3
Ques
11:
4
Ques
12:
2
Ques
13:
3
Ques
14:
4
Ques
15:
4
Ques
16:
1
Ques
17:
4
Ques
18:
1
Ques
19:
4
Ques
20:
1
Ques
21:
1
Ques
22:
2
Ques
23:
4
Ques
24:
2
Ques
25:
4
Ques
26:
3
Ques
27:
4
Ques
28:
4
Ques
29:
4
Ques
30:
1
For More Question Click here
-