Multiple Choice Question and Answer for CTET Paper 1 (Hindi, English) Model Paper 7 (Marks : 150.00)

       

Section : Child Development and Pedagogy

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Plato argued that __________ are fit to rule.
1. only educationists
2. only philosophers
3. only psychologists
4. educationists and philosophers


Ques 2. According to John Dewey, which side of the educational process is the basis?
1. sociological
2. economical
3. philosophical
4. psychological


Ques 3. An assessment is __________ if it consistently achieves the same results with the same (or similar) students.
1. Valid
2. Invalid
3. Reliable
4. Unreliable


Ques 4. Realism is a philosophical approach that argues that ultimate reality is the world of
1. ideas
2. observations
3. experiences
4. physical objects


Ques 5. Which from the following is NOT among the five senses?
1. smell
2. vision
3. touch
4. thought


Ques 6. The __________ the stimulus-response bond (S-R bond), the better a person has learned the lesson.
1. stable
2. weaker
3. stronger
4. unstable


Ques 7. Evaluation of the process of curriculum development should be made
1. abruptly
2. relatively
3. gradually
4. continuously


Ques 8. According to the law of effect, if a stimulus results in a negative outcome, the S-R bond is
1. stabilized
2. weakened
3. unsterilized
4. strengthened


Ques 9. The standard deviation is the __________ of the variance.
1. cube
2. cube root
3. square
4. square root


Ques 10. Which from the following should be used to decrease minor inappropriate behavior ?
1. Praise
2. Reward
3. Strictness
4. Ignorance


Ques 11. An assessment use to determine a person's ability in a particular field of studies is called
1. evaluation
2. aptitude test
3. measurement
4. diagnostic test


Ques 12. The curriculum of educational institutes should be based on
1. theory
2. practice
3. theory and practice
4. theory[comma] practice and research


Ques 13. The term heuristic means __________ in decision making.
1. calculations
2. thoroughness
3. brain storming
4. mental shortcuts


Ques 14. Validity of an assessment relates to the __________ of an assessment.
1. quality
2. relevance
3. usefulness
4. consistency


Ques 15. Formative assessment is an assessment __________ learning.
1. of
2. to
3. by
4. for


Ques 16. We calculate average marks of a student in the way as we calculate
1. variance
2. arithmetic mean
3. geometric mean
4. standard deviation


Ques 17. Which from the following is NOT an informal assessment?
1. Project
2. Rubrics
3. Observation
4. Participation


Ques 18. According to Edward Thorndike, learning is about responding to
1. change
2. stimuli
3. analysis
4. experiment


Ques 19. The most complex skill of Bloom's taxonomy is
1. evaluating
2. originating
3. synthesizing
4. characterizing


Ques 20. An assessment that is conducted prior to the start of teaching or instruction is called
1. initial assessment
2. formal assessment
3. formative assessment
4. summative assessment


Ques 21. The __________ says, we are motivated to gain rewards and avoid punishments.
1. law of effect
2. law of exercise
3. law of readiness
4. law of connectionism


Ques 22. The more often a particular ability is used the __________ it becomes.
1. weaker
2. stronger
3. less important
4. more important


Ques 23. The simplest skill in cognitive domain of Bloom's taxonomy is
1. evaluating
2. synthesizing
3. remembering
4. understanding


Ques 24. "The ""Academy"" was founded in"
1. Chakis
2. Athens
3. Stagira
4. Macedonia


Ques 25. "The ""Apology"" the Plato's recollection of the speech given by Socrates when Socrates was charged with"
1. believing in gods
2. not believing in gods
3. believing in the rotation of the Earth
4. not believing in the rotation of the Earth


Ques 26. According to Socrates, physical objects and events are __________ of their ideal form.
1. signs
2. parts
3. images
4. shadows


Ques 27. As people grow older, the __________ of learning declines.
1. power
2. speed
3. quality
4. quantity


Ques 28. According to the law of effect, if a stimulus results in a positive outcome, the S-R bond is
1. stabilized
2. weakened
3. unsterilized
4. strengthened


Ques 29. The process of reasoning from one or more given statements to reach a logically certain conclusion is called
1. Inductive Reasoning
2. Deductive Reasoning
3. Qualitative Reasoning
4. Quantitative Reasoning


Ques 30. The brain __________ as people gets older.
1. remains unaffected
2. stays constant
3. expands
4. shrinks


Answers are:
Ques 1: 2
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 3
Ques 4: 4
Ques 5: 4
Ques 6: 3
Ques 7: 4
Ques 8: 4
Ques 9: 4
Ques 10: 4
Ques 11: 2
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 4
Ques 14: 2
Ques 15: 4
Ques 16: 2
Ques 17: 1
Ques 18: 2
Ques 19: 2
Ques 20: 1
Ques 21: 1
Ques 22: 2
Ques 23: 3
Ques 24: 2
Ques 25: 2
Ques 26: 4
Ques 27: 2
Ques 28: 4
Ques 29: 2
Ques 30: 4


Section : Language I (Hindi)

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1. सरवावसर
2. सर्वावसर
3. सर्ववासर
4. सवर्वासर


Ques 2. निम्नलिखित प्रश्न  में दिए गए वाक्यों में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए-
1. विद्यार्थियों ने
2. प्राचार्य को
3. एक गेंदे की माला पहनाई
4. कोई त्रुटि नहीं।


Ques 3. उद्देष्य
1. लक्ष
2. लक्ष्य
3. लाख
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं


Ques 4. "सब ग्रामवासी खजाना लूटने को दौड पडे।" इस वाक्य में कौन-सी क्रिया है ?
1. संयुक्त
2. यौगिक
3. सहायक
4. नामबोधक


Ques 5. "अनुचित" शब्द में उपसर्ग है ?
1. अन्
2. अनु
3. अनू
4. अन


Ques 6. उपर्युक्त
1. उपः + युक्त
2. उपः + उत
3. उपर् + उक्त
4. उपरि + उक्त


Ques 7. संतोष से बढ कर सुख नहीं।
1. मिश्र वाक्य
2. सरल वाक्य
3. मिश्र वाक्य
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं


Ques 8. आज बहुत पानी गिरा।
1. साधारण वाक्य
2. मिश्र वाक्य
3. संयुक्त
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं


Ques 9. जो किसी का हित चाहता हो।
1. हितकारी
2. अहितकारी
3. हितैषी
4. हितभोगी


Ques 10. चन्द्रमा
1. दिवाकर
2. निषि
3. मार्तण्ड
4. शषि


Ques 11. काम का नाम बताने वाले शब्द को क्या कहते हे ?
1. संज्ञा
2. सर्वनाम
3. क्रिया
4. क्रिया-विषेषण


Ques 12. नव-ग्रह
1. द्विगु
2. तत्पुरूष
3. द्वन्द्व
4. कर्मधारय


Ques 13. संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के साथ क्रिया जुडने पर कौन सी क्रिया बनती है ?
1. नामबोधक
2. सकर्मक
3. द्विकर्मक
4. यौगिक


Ques 14. देशान्तर
1. कर्मधारय
2. द्विगु
3. द्वन्द्व
4. बहुब्रीहि


Ques 15. अन्न-अन्य
1. अनाज-अतिरिक्त
2. दूसरी-धान
3. अनाज-दूसरा
4. अनाज-तीसरा


Ques 16. वह शब्द जो उपसर्ग प्रयोग की दृष्टि से शुद्ध है ?
1. प्राक्कथन
2. प्राकथन
3. प्रक्थन
4. प्राक्थन


Ques 17. त्रिफला
1. अव्ययीभाव
2. द्विगु
3. द्वन्द्व
4. तत्पुरूष


Ques 18. थोक
1. परचून
2. थाक
3. थोया
4. पर्यायिक


Ques 19. आकर्षण
1. आकृष्ट
2. विकर्षण
3. अनाकर्षण
4. पराकर्षण


Ques 20. "बिन ब्याहा" शब्द में उपसर्ग है ?
1. बा
2. बे
3. बिन्
4. बिन


Ques 21. दर्प
1. तिरस्कार
2. अहंकार
3. स्वाभीमान
4. गर्व


Ques 22. निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में दिए गए वाक्य में से कुछ में त्रुटि है और कुछ ठीक हैं। त्रुटि वाले वाक्य में जिस भाग में त्रुटि हो, उस भाग का अक्षरांक (अ,ब,स अथवा द) ही आपका उत्तर है। यदि वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि न हो ‘कोई त्रुटि नहीं‘ को उत्तर के रूप के चिन्हित कीजिए
1. स्वतन्त्रता।संग्राम में प्राण गंवाने वाले
2.  वीरों के सम्मान में सरकार ने
3. एक दिन के सार्वजनिक अवकाष की घोषणा की है।
4. कोई त्रुटि नही।


Ques 23. "उन्यासी" शब्द में उपसर्ग है ?
1. उ
2. उन
3. उन्
4. उत्


Ques 24. निम्नलिखित में से सही शब्द-शुद्धि का चुनाव कीजिए।
1. छः
2. छह
3. छह्
4. छै


Ques 25. अनिल
1. चक्रवात
2. पावस
3. पवन
4. अनल


Instruction : हँसी शरीर के स्वास्थ्य का संदेश देने वाली है। वह एक साथ ही शरीर और मन को प्रसन्न करती है। पाचन शक्ति बढ़ाती है, रक्त को चलाती है और अधिक पसीना लाती है। हँसी एक शक्तिशाली दवा है। एक डॉक्टर के अनुसार हँसी जीवन की मीठी दवा है। आनंद से बढ़कर बहुमूल्य वस्तु मनुष्य के पास और नहीं है। कारलाइल एक राजकुमार था। वह कहता है कि जो जी से हँसता है वह कभी बुरा नहीं होता। जी से हँसो, तुम्हें अच्छा लगेगा। अपने मित्र को हँसाओ, वह अधिक प्रसन्न होगा। शत्रु को हँसाओ, तुमसे कम घृणा करेगा। एक अनजान को हँसाओ, तुम पर भरोसा करेगा। उदास को हँसाओ, उसका दुःख घटेगा। एक बालक को हँसाओ, उसके स्वास्थ्य में वृद्धि होगी। वह प्रसन्न और प्यारा बालक बनेगा। कष्टों में और चिंताओं में एक सुंदर हँसी, बड़ी प्यारी वस्तु भगवान ने दी है।(From Ques 26 to Ques 30)
Ques 26. ‘उसके स्वास्थ्य में वृद्धि होगी।’ वाक्य में रेखांकित पद का कारक बताइए।
1. संप्रदानकारक
2. अधिकरण कारक
3. संबंधकारक
4. अपादानकारक


Ques 27. प्रसन्न, उदास विशेषण शब्द हैं। इनकी भाववाचक संज्ञा हैः
1. प्रशंसनीय, उदासी
2. प्रसन्नता, उदासी
3. प्रसन्नता, उदासीन
4. प्रसन्नतापूर्वक, उदासपूण


Ques 28. हँसी क्या नहीं करती है?
1. मन और शरीर को प्रसन्न
2. पाचन शक्ति में वृद्धि
3. बीमारी में वृद्धि
4. स्वास्थ्य में वृद्धि


Ques 29. ‘हँसी’ से विशेषण बनेगा :
1. हँसी
2. हँसना
3. हँसमुख
4. हँसता


Ques 30. मनुष्य के पास सबसे अनमोल वस्तु है:
1. बुद्धि
2. धन
3. हँसी
4. बल


Answers are:
Ques 1: 3
Ques 2: 3
Ques 3: 1
Ques 4: 1
Ques 5: 1
Ques 6: 4
Ques 7: 2
Ques 8: 1
Ques 9: 3
Ques 10: 4
Ques 11: 3
Ques 12: 1
Ques 13: 1
Ques 14: 1
Ques 15: 3
Ques 16: 1
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 1
Ques 19: 2
Ques 20: 4
Ques 21: 4
Ques 22: 4
Ques 23: 2
Ques 24: 1
Ques 25: 3
Ques 26: 2
Ques 27: 2
Ques 28: 3
Ques 29: 3
Ques 30: 3


Section : Language II (English)

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Excellencce
2. Exillance
3. Exellence
4. Excellence


Ques 2. Licentious
1. Immoral
2. Intellectual
3. Moral
4. Without licence


Ques 3. Encountered
1. Face
2. Solved
3. Entertained
4. Entered


Ques 4. Penury
1. Poverty
2. Petty
3. Phony
4. Pathetic


Ques 5. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Equilibrium
2. Equillibriun
3. Equilibreum
4. Equilebrium


Ques 6. Additionally, the Department (A)/ of Science & Technology will launch a (B) establishment of centers of excellence (C)/ Mission on Cyber Physical Systems to support (D)/
1. ABDC
2. CADB
3. CBAD
4. DCAB


Ques 7. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Guarantee
2. Guaranty
3. Guaranttee
4. Gurantie


Ques 8. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Supercede
2. Superzede
3. Supersede
4. Superceed


Ques 9. India’s labour-intensive industries are languishing with exports of these industries showing _______ growth.
I. Dizzying
II. Tepid
III. Week
1. Only III
2. Only I
3. Only I and II
4. Only II and III


Ques 10. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Gaurd
2. Gard
3. Garad
4. Guard


Ques 11. Defiant
1. obedient
2. rebellious
3. meek
4. friendly


Ques 12. These approaches are not _______ to most business systems because they don’t have clearly defined outcomes and they deal with far too many variables.
I. Applicable
II. Pertinent
III. Validate
1. Only II
2. Only III
3. Only I and II
4. Only II and III


Ques 13. in Meghalaya, Nagaland and Tripura in (A)/ if there is one lesson the “mainland” must (B)/ draw from the ­recent assembly elections (C)/ north-east India, it is to avoid generalisations (D)
1. CBAD
2. BDAC
3. BADC
4. BCAD


Ques 14. Pass the buck
1. To tell people about someone’s secrets
2. To pass the blame
3. Everyone gets a chance eventually
4. Once in a life-time


Ques 15. Fallible
1. Faltering
2. Gormless
3. Inept
4. Unerring


Ques 16. The difference in the cultural relationship to punctuality is another stumbling block between India and Japan.
1. Consecration
2. Impediment
3. Slab of rock
4. Assistance


Ques 17. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Abreviate
2. Abbrreviate
3. Abbreviate
4. Abrreviate


Ques 18. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Forenheit
2. Fahrenheit
3. Farenheight
4. Farenhite


Ques 19. The USA and Japan have a common strategic objective in countering Chinese hegemony in Asia, a goal that can be best met in collaboration.
1. Berate
2. Mutually
3. Distinctly
4. Recuperate


Ques 20. Lucy was working (A) / overtime because (B) / she had to prepare (C) / for an important meating. (D) / All correct (E)
1. working
2. because
3. prepare
4. meating


Ques 21. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Wellful
2. Wilful
3. Wilfull
4. Willfull


Ques 22. Strategic defaulters may _______ up to 40 percent of nonperforming loans, against an original estimate of 15 percent, which was revised to 25 percent at the end of 2017.
I. Account for
II. Add up
III. Back down
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only II and III
4. Only I and II


Ques 23. Calamitous
1. Fortunate
2. Haggard
3. Ambivalent
4. Cantankerous


Ques 24. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Intermittently
2. Intermitantly
3. Intarmittantly
4. Intarmitently


Ques 25. Find the correctly spelt word.
1. Instalation
2. Insttalation
3. Installasion
4. Installation


Instruction :

The Indian pharma industry is flourishing overseas, touching almost every part of the world. With low cost, speed and high quality advantage, India is gearing up to become the hub for contract research and manufacturing. Having a competitive edge is, one thing and maintaining it is another. Canada provides tax benefits up to 6 percent for research carried out within the country. Others like Korea and China without a large pool of scientists make up by facilitating foreign research in every conceivable way. India does not do any of this and faces many hurdles - diseases that it has been inflicted with since independence like Malaria and TB while Indian companies have only focused on reverse engineering blockbuster drugs from MNCs, overseas scientists have displayed little interest in researching sub-contiment specific diseases as there are more profits and public interest in lifestyle drugs such as obesity which in turn fund their research. In the interest of Indian research industry a decision must be taken quickly on the implementation of data protection laws.

India is one of the few countries where data exclusivity provisions are not prevalent. Data protection is a contentious issue, wholly debated by the government and the industry. A pharma company wishing to market a drug is required to submit data to the drug controller to show that the drug is both effective and safe. The first (originator) company that makes the application for marketing approval has to submit its data relating to the clinical trials to the drug controller, who once satisfied that the drug is safe and effective will register it. Another drug company wishing to market the same drug only requires to show a bioequivalence company. Thus, as per the prevailing laws, the regulator in India can rely on an innovator’s data to approve the competitor’s product. While the system in general is responsible for maintaining the necessary secrecy, it is not accountable for the same—the competitor gets an unfair advantage over the innovator even when he is clandestinely abusing an innovator’s intellectual property. Consequently research-based pharma companies are being forced to undertake vital clinical trials abroad. Huge expenditures are incurred overseas, draining precious foreign exchange when this could be done at home at a fraction of the cost.

Ques 26. According to the author, what is the disadvantage of holding clinical trials abroad?
1. Research facilities in India are far more sophisticated.
2. Authenticity of research methodology cannot be monitored.
3. Delayed processing of test data.
4. Higher cost resulting in the drain of financial resources


Ques 27. Which of the following is/are India’s strengths in drug discovery and research?
1. Relaxed patent laws
2. Reverse engineering of foreign blockbuster drugs
3. Incentives to foreign companies researching sub-continent diseases
1. Only 1
2. Both 1 & 3
3. Only 2
4. All of these


Ques 28. Which of the following measures has Korea taken to be competitive in the pharma industry?
1. It offers blockbuster drugs at highly subsidised rates.
2. It collaborates with foreign research firms.
3. It provides regulatory approvals.
4. It enacts relaxed tax laws.


Ques 29. According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws?
1. To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
2. To attract Indian scientists back to the country
3. To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
4. To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public


Ques 30. Which of the following is a reason for India’s continuing battle with commonplace diseases?
1. Rigid patent laws mean essential foreign drugs are not easily available in India.
2. Newer more effective treatments and drugs are unaffordable.
3. Government does not adequately subsidise drugs required for treatment of these diseases.
4. Research and development of drugs for such diseases is taken up only by advanced countries.


Answers are:
Ques 1: 4
Ques 2: 1
Ques 3: 1
Ques 4: 1
Ques 5: 1
Ques 6: 1
Ques 7: 1
Ques 8: 3
Ques 9: 2
Ques 10: 4
Ques 11: 1
Ques 12: 3
Ques 13: 4
Ques 14: 2
Ques 15: 4
Ques 16: 2
Ques 17: 3
Ques 18: 2
Ques 19: 2
Ques 20: 4
Ques 21: 2
Ques 22: 1
Ques 23: 1
Ques 24: 1
Ques 25: 4
Ques 26: 4
Ques 27: 5
Ques 28: 5
Ques 29: 3
Ques 30: 5


Section : Mathematics

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. The banker's gain on a sum due 3 years hence at 12% per annum is Rs. 270. The banker's discount is:
1. Rs. 960
2. Rs. 840
3. Rs. 1020
4. Rs. 760


Ques 2. A goods train runs at the speed of 72 km/hr and crosses a 250 m long platform in 26 seconds. What is the length of the goods train?
1. 240m
2. 250m
3. 260m
4. 270m


Ques 3. If the first day of the year(other than the leap year) was Friday, then which was the last day of the year?
1. Monday
2. Thursday
3. Friday
4. Sunday


Ques 4. A train crosses a platform 100 m long in 60 seconds at a speed of 45kmph. The time by the train to cross an electric pole is
1. 52 s
2. 48 s
3. 43 s
4. 38 s


Ques 5.

A man has some hens and cows. If the number of heads be 48 and the number of feet equals 140, then the number of hens will be

1. 22
2. 23
3. 24
4. 26


Ques 6. Three number are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 2400. Their H.C.F. is
1. 40
2. 80
3. 120
4. 200


Ques 7. A square garden has fourteen posts along each side at equal interval. Find how many posts are there in all four sides.
1. 56
2. 44
3. 52
4. 60


Ques 8. 1, 3, 1, 9, 1, 81, 1 ?
1. 4
2. 1
3. 243
4. 6561


Ques 9.

A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours. Because of a leak, it took 2 hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in:

1. 5 hours
2. 7 hours
3. 8 hours
4. 14 hours


Ques 10. The banker's discount on a bill due 4 months hence at 15% is Rs. 420. The true discount is
1. Rs. 400
2. Rs. 360
3. Rs. 480
4. Rs. 320


Ques 11. The diagonal of a rectangle is 41 cm and its area is 20 sq. cm. The perimeter of the rectangle must be:
1. 9 cm
2. 18 cm
3. 20 cm
4. 41 cm


Ques 12. A and B are working on an assignment. A takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a computer, while B takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
1. 5 hours 15 minutes
2. 4 hours 30 minutes
3. 8 hours 15 minutes
4. 7 hours 45 minutes


Ques 13. A train 60 m long passes a platform 90 m long in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is
1. 60 km/h
2. 58 km/h
3. 54 km/h
4. 50 km/h


Ques 14.

A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m x 36 m. From each of its corners, a square is cut off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box (in m3) is:

1. 4830
2. 5120
3. 6420
4. 8960


Ques 15.

The price of 2 sarees and 4 shirts is Rs. 1600. With the same money one can buy 1 saree and 6 shirts. If one wants to buy 12 shirts, how much shall he have to pay ?

1. Rs. 1200
2. Rs. 2400
3. Rs. 4800
4. Cannot be determined


Ques 16. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7: 8. If the second train runs 440 kms in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is:
1. 47.4 km/hr
2. 57.19 km/hr
3. 68.13 km/hr
4. 96.25 km/hr


Ques 17.

In a 100 m race, A can give B 10 m and C 28 m. In the same race B can give C:

1. 18 m
2. 20 m
3. 27 m
4. 9 m


Ques 18. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M. is 7700. If one of the numbers is 275, then the other is:
1. 279
2. 283
3. 308
4. 318


Ques 19.

In a game of 100 points, A can give B 20 points and C 28 points. Then, B can give C:

1. 8 points
2. 10 points
3. 14 points
4. 40 points


Ques 20.

A and B take part in 100 m race. A runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats him by 8 seconds. The speed of B is:

1. 5.15 kmph
2. 4.14 kmph
3. 4.25 kmph
4. 4.4 kmph


Ques 21. A motorist covers a distance of 39km in 45min by moving at a speed of x kmph for the first 15min, then moving at double the speed for the next 20 min, and then again moving at his original speed for the rest of the journey. Find x.
1. 60 km/h
2. 48 km/h
3. 36 km/h
4. 58 km/h


Ques 22. 1.14 expressed as a per cent of 1.9 is:
1. 6%
2. 10%
3. 60%
4. 90%


Ques 23. With a speed of 60kmph a train crosses a pole in 30 seconds. The length of the train is
1. 300m
2. 400m
3. 500m
4. 600m


Ques 24. A clock gains 5 minutes in one hour. Therefore, the angle traversed by the minute hand in one minute is
1. 360°
2. 390°
3. 390.5°
4. None of these


Ques 25.

If the price of the commodity is increased by 50% by what fraction must its consumption be reduced so as to keep the same expenditure on its consumption?

1. 4-Jan
2. 3-Jan
3. 2-Jan
4. 3-Feb


Ques 26. A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track in 240 metres ahead of the engine of a 120 metres long train running at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much time will the train pass the jogger?
1. 70 Sec
2. 20 Sec
3. 36 Sec
4. 40 Sec


Ques 27. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit
1. Rs. 1900
2. Rs. 2660
3. Rs. 2800
4. Rs. 2840


Ques 28.

835, 734, 642, 751, 853, 981, 532

1. 751
2. 853
3. 981
4. 532


Ques 29. In a 729 litres mixture of milk and water, the ratio of milk to water is 7:2. to get a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 7:3, the amount of water to be added is:
1. 81 litres
2. 71 litres
3. 56 litres
4. 50 litres


Ques 30.

If 3(x - y) = 27 and 3(x + y) = 243, then x is equal to:

1. 0
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6


Answers are:
Ques 1: 3
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 3
Ques 4: 1
Ques 5: 4
Ques 6: 1
Ques 7: 3
Ques 8: 4
Ques 9: 4
Ques 10: 1
Ques 11: 2
Ques 12: 4
Ques 13: 3
Ques 14: 2
Ques 15: 2
Ques 16: 4
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 3
Ques 19: 2
Ques 20: 2
Ques 21: 3
Ques 22: 3
Ques 23: 3
Ques 24: 2
Ques 25: 2
Ques 26: 3
Ques 27: 2
Ques 28: 1
Ques 29: 1
Ques 30: 3


Section : Environmental Studies

( Marks : 30.00)

Ques 1. Sustainability requires
1. Conservations of resources
2. Minimizing depletion of non-renewable sources
3. Using sustainable practices for managing renewable resources
4. All the above


Ques 2. Major problem/s due to industrialization is/are
1. Urbanization
2. Migration of people
3. Development of slums
4. All of the above


Ques 3. The earth's land surface covered by forest is about
1. 30%
2. 40%
3. 50%
4. 60%


Ques 4. About 30% of the country's coal deposits are found in
1. Kashmir
2. Karnataka
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Bihar and Orissa


Ques 5. The term 'Refuse' generally does not include is
1. Ashes
2. Excreta
3. Putrescible solid waste
4. Non putrescible solid waste


Ques 6. Global warming means :
1. Increase in Earth's Body Temperature
2. Increase in solar radiation
3. Acid Rain
4. All the above


Ques 7. Which of the following is not a Green House Gas?
1. Ozone
2. Water vapour
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Sulpher dioxide


Ques 8. Global warming affects
1. Climate change
2. Food production
3. Melting of glaciers
4. All of these


Ques 9. The protocol that reduces green house gas emissions is
1. Kyoto protocol
2. Vienna protocol
3. Montreal protocol
4. Cartagena protocol


Ques 10. Green house effect causes
1. Increase in rainfall
2. Lowering of acid rain
3. Rise in temperature of earth
4. Lowering in temperature of earth


Ques 11. Important sources of land pollution are
1. Industrial Wastes
2. Agricultural Wastes
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of the above


Ques 12. The main impact of urbanization on plant and animal life is
1. Loss of species
2. Mutation in species
3. Increase in species
4. None of these


Ques 13. The equivalent of one Dobson unit is
1. 0.1 m
2. 0.01 m
3. 0.1 mm
4. 0.01 mm


Ques 14. Ozone hole is said to occur when the ozone level decreases below
1. 2 DU
2. 20 DU
3. 200 DU
4. 2000 DU


Ques 15. Freon's are called
1. Ozone
2. Methane
3. Solvents
4. Hydrocarbons


Ques 16. The environment act was enacted by Indian parliament under Article 253 of the constitution of India and made applicable to all states of India in the year
1. 1984
2. 1985
3. 1986
4. 1987


Ques 17. The first major environmental protection law promulgated in India was
1. Air Act
2. Water Act
3. Environmental Act
4. None of these


Ques 18. Water Pollution, 'Prevention and Control Act' was enacted in the year
1. 1954
2. 1964
3. 1974
4. 1984


Ques 19. Environmental protection is the responsibility of
1. Individuals
2. NGO's
3. Government of India
4. All of the above


Ques 20. Which of the following is the authority to monitor state industrial effluents?
1. State pollution control board
2. Indian environmental association
3. Centre for science and development
4. None of these


Ques 21. Environment Protection Act of 1986 is meant for
1. Waste management
2. Forest management
3. Desert management
4. Protection of human environment including human[comma] plants[comma] animals and property


Ques 22. Environmental education is targeted to
1. General public
2. Professional social groups
3. Technicians and scientists
4. All of these


Ques 23. World environment day is celebrated on
1. April 5th
2. June 5th
3. November 5th
4. December 5th


Ques 24. Expansion of the term WWF is
1. Worldwide forest
2. World wild life fund
3. Worldwide life force
4. Worldwide life forest


Ques 25. In which year the Hon'ble supreme court ofIndia made environmental education compulsory subject at all the levels of education
1. 2000
2. 2001
3. 2002
4. 2003


Ques 26. Amount of carbon dioxide present in atmospheric air is
1. 0.32%
2. 0.38%
3. 21%
4. 78%


Ques 27. Climate and global air circulations are mainly affected by the properties of
1. Temperature
2. Precipitation
3. Water and air
4. None of the above


Ques 28. 'Earth's Day' is celebrated every year on:
1. Oct 26th
2. April 22nd
3. June 5th
4. Dec 23rd


Ques 29. Acid rain affects
1. Soil
2. Plants
3. Materials
4. All of the above


Ques 30. During green house effect, carbon dioxide and water vapours absorbs,
1. UV radiations
2. Solar radiation
3. Short wave radiations
4. Long wave radiations


Answers are:
Ques 1: 4
Ques 2: 4
Ques 3: 1
Ques 4: 4
Ques 5: 1
Ques 6: 1
Ques 7: 4
Ques 8: 4
Ques 9: 1
Ques 10: 3
Ques 11: 3
Ques 12: 1
Ques 13: 4
Ques 14: 3
Ques 15: 4
Ques 16: 3
Ques 17: 2
Ques 18: 3
Ques 19: 4
Ques 20: 1
Ques 21: 4
Ques 22: 4
Ques 23: 2
Ques 24: 2
Ques 25: 4
Ques 26: 1
Ques 27: 1
Ques 28: 2
Ques 29: 4
Ques 30: 4



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